Nursing Elites

1. Why is accurate documentation of assessment findings regarding pressure ulcers crucial?

• A. To comply with legal requirements for documenting lesions.
• B. To meet hospital policies for documenting lesions.
• C. To fulfill physician's documentation requirements for lesions.
• D. Because the nursing assessment of ulcers is a standard of nursing practice.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Accurate documentation of assessment findings regarding pressure ulcers is crucial because the nursing assessment of ulcers is a standard practice in nursing care. Documenting these findings not only ensures continuity of care but also plays a vital role in preventing further progression of the ulcer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while laws, hospital policies, and physician requirements may influence documentation practices, the primary reason for accurate documentation lies in the standards of nursing practice and the quality of patient care.

2. The LPN is preparing to clean a client's PEG tube.The following tasks should the nurse perform EXCEPT?

• A. Gently remove crusty drainage from the site.
• B. Pull the tube in multiple directions to ensure it is secure.
• C. Thoroughly dry the skin around the tube site with a clean towel.
• D. Use mild soap to clean around the tube site.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When cleaning a client's PEG tube, the nurse should perform tasks that focus on gentle cleaning and avoiding potential irritants. Choice A is correct as gently removing crusty drainage helps maintain hygiene. Choice C is important to prevent skin irritation and infection. Choice D is appropriate for cleaning the area. Choices B and D are incorrect. Choice B is incorrect because pulling the tube in multiple directions can lead to dislodgement or injury. Choice B is incorrect as talcum powder may irritate the stoma, and it is generally not recommended near PEG tubes.

3. Which of the following clients requires airborne precautions?

• A. a client with fever, chills, vomiting, and diarrhea
• B. a client suspected of varicella (chickenpox)
• C. a client with abdominal pain and purpura
• D. a client diagnosed with AIDS

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'a client suspected of varicella (chickenpox).' Chickenpox is an acute, infectious airborne illness that requires airborne precautions, including wearing a respirator mask for direct contact with the patient. Choices A, C, and D do not typically require airborne precautions. Choice A describes symptoms that may indicate a gastrointestinal infection but do not require airborne precautions. Choice C mentions abdominal pain and purpura, which are not specific to an airborne illness. Choice D, a client diagnosed with AIDS, does not necessitate airborne precautions unless there are additional infectious conditions present that require such measures.

4. A nurse is planning to administer an oral antibiotic to a client with a communicable disease. The client refuses the medication and tells the nurse that the medication causes abdominal cramping. The nurse responds, 'The medication is needed to prevent the spread of infection, and if you don't take it orally I will have to give it to you in an intramuscular injection.' Which statement accurately describes the nurse's response to the client?

• A. The nurse is justified in administering the medication by way of the intramuscular route because the client has a communicable disease.
• B. The nurse could be charged with assault.
• C. Assault is an intentional threat to bring about harmful or offensive contact. If a nurse threatens to give a client a medication that the client refuses or threatens to give a client an injection without the client's consent, the nurse may be charged with assault. Therefore, the nurse is not justified in administering the medication. Battery is any intentional touching without the client's consent.
• D. The nurse will be justified in administering the medication by the intramuscular route once a prescription has been obtained from the health care provider.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer explains the concept of assault, which is an intentional threat to bring about harmful or offensive contact. In the scenario provided, the nurse's statement about administering the medication via an intramuscular injection without the client's consent constitutes a threat, potentially falling under the definition of assault. Choice A is incorrect because the nurse's action is not automatically justified solely by the client having a communicable disease. Choice D is also incorrect because even with a prescription, the nurse cannot administer the medication without the client's consent. Choice C provides a detailed explanation distinguishing assault from battery, which helps in understanding the legal implications of the nurse's response in this situation.

5. Who is responsible for obtaining the signature from the client on the informed consent?

• A. the staff nurse
• B. the charge nurse
• C. the LPN
• D. the physician

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is the physician. It is the physician's responsibility to ensure that the client provides informed consent by obtaining their signature. While nurses play a crucial role in the healthcare team, their responsibility lies in verifying that the consent process has been completed correctly and advocating for the client. The staff nurse, charge nurse, and LPN do not have the authority to obtain the client's signature on the informed consent form, as this is within the scope of practice of the physician.

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