Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider should utilize data about which of the following to provide information about the nutritional status of a client being evaluated for malnutrition?

• A. triceps skinfold measurement
• B. fasting blood glucose level
• C. hemoglobin A1c level
• D. serum lipid profile results

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Objective anthropometric measurements such as triceps skinfold and mid-arm circumference (MAC), along with weight, are usually used to diagnose malnutrition. Triceps skinfold measurement specifically helps assess body fat and muscle mass, providing valuable information about the client's nutritional status. Fasting blood glucose level, hemoglobin A1c level, and serum lipid profile results are important tests in assessing different aspects of health such as diabetes management and cardiovascular risk, but they are not specific indicators of malnutrition.

2. The manic client has just interrupted the group session with the counselor for the 4th time, explaining that she already knows this information on 'dealing with others when you are down' and constantly gets up and goes to the front. What should the nurse do at this time?

• A. Engage the client to walk with you to make another pot of coffee
• B. Ask the client to reflect on their behavior to determine if it is appropriate
• C. Ask the group to tell the client how they feel when she interrupts
• D. Instruct the client to perform jumping jacks and count aloud to get rid of some energy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this situation, it is important to redirect the client's energy and focus. Engaging the client in a purposeful activity like making another pot of coffee can help distract them from disruptive behavior and provide an outlet for their excess energy. This choice also helps in maintaining a therapeutic environment by involving the client in a constructive task. Asking the client to reflect on their behavior (Choice B) might not be effective during a manic episode as the client may not be in a state to critically analyze their actions. Asking the group to tell the client how they feel (Choice C) can escalate the situation and may not be appropriate in this context. Instructing the client to perform jumping jacks and count aloud (Choice D) may not address the underlying issue of disruptive behavior and may not be suitable for the current situation.

3. Nurses should understand the chain of infection because it refers to:

• A. the linkages involved in disease transmission.
• B. the sequence required for transmission of disease.
• C. the clustering of bacteria in a specific pattern.
• D. increasing virulence patterns among microorganisms.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The chain of infection refers to the sequence required for the transmission of disease, involving steps like the pathogen's presence, movement from a reservoir, and entry into a susceptible host. Understanding this sequence helps healthcare professionals, including nurses, in implementing effective infection control measures. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the concept of the chain of infection. Choice A is too broad and does not specifically address the sequential nature of disease transmission. Choice C focuses on bacterial clustering rather than the transmission process. Choice D mentions virulence patterns, which are not the primary focus of the chain of infection concept.

4. A patient has fallen off a bicycle and fractured the head of the proximal fibula. A cast was placed on the patient's lower extremity. Which of the following is the most probable result of the fall?

• A. Peroneal nerve injury
• B. Tibial nerve injury
• C. Sciatic nerve injury
• D. Femoral nerve injury

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is peroneal nerve injury. The head of the proximal fibula is in close proximity to the peroneal nerve, making it susceptible to injury when there is a fracture. The peroneal nerve runs along the fibula and can be affected by trauma to this area. Choice B, tibial nerve injury, is incorrect as the fracture site is closer to the peroneal nerve, not the tibial nerve. Choice C, sciatic nerve injury, is incorrect as the injury is more localized to the fibular head area where the peroneal nerve is affected. Choice D, femoral nerve injury, is incorrect as the femoral nerve is not immediately adjacent to the proximal fibula and is not typically affected by this type of injury.

5. How can a nurse recognize that a chronic renal failure client's AV shunt is patent?

• A. Absence of a bruit
• B. Presence of a thrill
• C. Blood return from the shunt
• D. Urine output greater than 30 ml/hr

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct assessment to determine the patency of an AV shunt in a chronic renal failure client is the presence of a thrill. A thrill is a vibration or buzzing sensation felt over the shunt site, indicating good blood flow through the shunt. While the presence of a bruit is also important for assessing an AV shunt, a thrill is a more specific indicator of patency. Blood return from the shunt is related to cannulation and not necessarily an indicator of patency. Urine output greater than 30 ml/hr is not directly related to the assessment of an AV shunt's patency.

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