HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Quizlet
1. The parents of a 6-year-old recently diagnosed with asthma should be taught that symptoms of an acute episode of asthma are due to which physiological response?
- A. Inflammation of the mucous membrane and bronchospasm
- B. Increased mucus production and airway obstruction
- C. Hyperinflation of the lungs and alveolar collapse
- D. Bronchoconstriction and airway inflammation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bronchoconstriction and airway inflammation. During an acute asthma episode, bronchoconstriction and airway inflammation occur, leading to difficulty breathing. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Inflammation of the mucous membrane and bronchospasm (Choice A) are part of the pathophysiology of asthma but do not fully explain the symptoms during an acute episode. Increased mucus production and airway obstruction (Choice B) are also seen in asthma but are not the primary cause of acute symptoms. Hyperinflation of the lungs and alveolar collapse (Choice C) are not typical features of an acute asthma episode.
2. A female client with ovarian cancer is receiving chemotherapy. Which laboratory result should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. White blood cell count of 2,000/mm³
- B. Platelet count of 100,000/mm³
- C. Hemoglobin level of 10 g/dL
- D. Serum creatinine level of 1.5 mg/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A white blood cell count of 2,000/mm³ is critically low and places the client at high risk for infection, requiring immediate intervention. Neutropenia, a low white blood cell count, is a common side effect of chemotherapy. A decreased white blood cell count compromises the immune system's ability to fight infections, making it a priority to address to prevent serious complications. Platelet count of 100,000/mm³ is relatively low but not as urgent as a severely low white blood cell count. Hemoglobin level of 10 g/dL is within the normal range for females and does not require immediate intervention. Serum creatinine level of 1.5 mg/dL is also within the normal range and does not pose an immediate threat to the client's health.
3. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with shortness of breath and chest pain. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate preparing the client for first?
- A. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
- B. Chest X-ray
- C. Pulmonary function tests (PFTs)
- D. Arterial blood gases (ABGs)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Electrocardiogram (ECG). An ECG should be performed first to assess for cardiac ischemia in a client presenting with shortness of breath and chest pain. This test helps in evaluating the electrical activity of the heart and can identify signs of myocardial infarction or other cardiac issues. Choice B, Chest X-ray, may be ordered after the ECG to assess for pulmonary conditions like pneumonia or effusions. Choice C, Pulmonary function tests (PFTs), are used to evaluate lung function and are not the primary diagnostic tests for a client with symptoms of cardiac origin. Choice D, Arterial blood gases (ABGs), may provide information about oxygenation but are not the initial test indicated for a client with suspected cardiac issues.
4. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is admitted with hyperkalemia. Which clinical finding is most concerning?
- A. Peaked T waves on the ECG
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Muscle weakness
- D. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Peaked T waves on the ECG are the most concerning finding in a client with hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac complications, including arrhythmias and cardiac arrest. Peaked T waves are a classic ECG finding associated with hyperkalemia and indicate the need for immediate intervention. Bradycardia, muscle weakness, and decreased deep tendon reflexes can also be seen in hyperkalemia, but the presence of peaked T waves signifies a higher risk of cardiac events, making it the most concerning finding in this scenario.
5. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is admitted with hyperkalemia. Which laboratory value is most concerning?
- A. Serum potassium of 6.5 mEq/L
- B. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L
- C. Serum creatinine of 2.0 mg/dl
- D. Blood glucose of 150 mg/dl
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L is concerning in a client with CKD as it indicates hyperkalemia, which requires immediate intervention to prevent cardiac complications. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias, particularly in patients with impaired kidney function. Serum sodium, creatinine, and blood glucose levels, while important, are not as acutely dangerous as severe hyperkalemia in this context.
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