Nursing Elites

1. What is the first action the nurse should implement for a client admitted with acute pancreatitis?

• A. Administer intravenous fluids as prescribed
• B. Administer pain medication as prescribed
• C. Place the client on NPO status
• D. Assess the client's abdomen for distention

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Placing the client on NPO status is the priority action for a client with acute pancreatitis. This step is crucial to rest the pancreas, prevent pancreatic stimulation, and decrease enzyme production. By withholding oral intake, the digestive system is given a chance to rest and recover. Administering intravenous fluids may be necessary but should come after placing the client on NPO status. Pain medication can be administered once the client is stabilized. Assessing the client's abdomen for distention is important but is not the initial priority in managing acute pancreatitis.

2. A client with chronic heart failure is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum potassium of 3.0 mEq/L
• B. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L
• C. Serum creatinine of 1.5 mg/dl
• D. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dl

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L requires immediate intervention in a client receiving furosemide. Furosemide can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia, which can be dangerous, especially in patients with heart failure. Hypokalemia can predispose the client to cardiac dysrhythmias, weakness, and other complications. Therefore, prompt intervention is necessary to prevent these adverse effects. Choice B (Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L) is within the normal range and does not require immediate intervention. Choice C (Serum creatinine of 1.5 mg/dl) may indicate kidney dysfunction but does not pose an immediate threat to the client's safety. Choice D (Blood glucose of 200 mg/dl) may suggest hyperglycemia, which is important but not as urgent as addressing hypokalemia in a client with heart failure receiving furosemide.

3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which clinical finding is most concerning?

• A. Headache
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 15 seconds
• C. Elevated liver enzymes
• D. Peripheral edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Headache. In a client with atrial fibrillation taking warfarin (Coumadin), a headache can be indicative of bleeding, which is a serious complication requiring immediate assessment and intervention. Monitoring for signs of bleeding is crucial when on anticoagulant therapy. Choices B, C, and D are not the most concerning. A prothrombin time of 15 seconds is within the therapeutic range for a client on warfarin, elevated liver enzymes may indicate liver dysfunction but are not directly related to the medication's side effects, and peripheral edema is not typically associated with warfarin use or atrial fibrillation in this context.

4. The nurse weighs a 6-month-old infant during a well-baby check-up and determines that the baby's weight has tripled compared to the birth weight of 7 pounds 8 ounces. The mother asks if the baby is gaining enough weight. What response should the nurse offer?

• A. Your baby is gaining weight right on schedule
• B. What food does your baby usually eat in a normal day?
• C. The baby is below the normal percentile for weight gain
• D. What was the baby's weight at the last well-baby check-up?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Your baby is gaining weight right on schedule.' Tripling of birth weight by 6 months is a normal growth pattern in infants, indicating appropriate weight gain and development. Choice B is unrelated to the question as it focuses on the baby's diet rather than addressing the weight gain concern. Choice C is incorrect as tripling the birth weight is considered a healthy growth pattern, not below normal percentile. Choice D is irrelevant to the mother's question about the adequacy of weight gain.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube following a pneumothorax. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 94%
• B. Crepitus around the insertion site
• C. Subcutaneous emphysema
• D. Drainage of 50 ml per hour

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Subcutaneous emphysema is the most critical finding requiring immediate intervention in a client with a chest tube following a pneumothorax. It may indicate a pneumothorax recurrence or air leak, which can lead to respiratory compromise. Oxygen saturation of 94% is slightly low but may not require immediate intervention. Crepitus around the insertion site can be a normal finding post-procedure. Drainage of 50 ml per hour is within the expected range for a chest tube output and does not indicate an immediate concern.

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