HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Quizlet
1. What is the first action the nurse should implement for a client admitted with acute pancreatitis?
- A. Administer intravenous fluids as prescribed
- B. Administer pain medication as prescribed
- C. Place the client on NPO status
- D. Assess the client's abdomen for distention
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Placing the client on NPO status is the priority action for a client with acute pancreatitis. This step is crucial to rest the pancreas, prevent pancreatic stimulation, and decrease enzyme production. By withholding oral intake, the digestive system is given a chance to rest and recover. Administering intravenous fluids may be necessary but should come after placing the client on NPO status. Pain medication can be administered once the client is stabilized. Assessing the client's abdomen for distention is important but is not the initial priority in managing acute pancreatitis.
2. A client who is receiving long-term steroid therapy complains of blurred vision. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Instruct the client to use artificial tears to lubricate the eyes
- B. Administer an ophthalmic antibiotic as prescribed
- C. Arrange for the client to see an optometrist for an eye exam
- D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the healthcare provider immediately (Option D). Blurred vision in a client on long-term steroid therapy can be a sign of serious conditions like cataracts or glaucoma, which need urgent medical evaluation and management. Instructing the client to use artificial tears (Option A) may help with dry eyes but does not address the underlying cause of blurred vision. Administering an ophthalmic antibiotic (Option B) is not indicated unless there is a specific infection present. Referring the client to an optometrist for an eye exam (Option C) may delay necessary medical intervention by the healthcare provider, who should be involved promptly in this situation.
3. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?
- A. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
- B. Serum creatinine of 2.5 mg/dL
- C. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dL
- D. White blood cell count of 10,000/mm³
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L is most concerning in a client receiving erythropoietin therapy as it indicates hyperkalemia, requiring immediate intervention. High potassium levels can lead to severe cardiac arrhythmias and must be addressed promptly. The other laboratory values, though abnormal, do not present immediate life-threatening risks as hyperkalemia does.
4. A client with severe COPD is receiving oxygen therapy at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula. The client's oxygen saturation level drops to 88% during ambulation. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Increase the oxygen flow rate to 4 liters per minute.
- B. Instruct the client to rest until the oxygen saturation improves.
- C. Discontinue ambulation and return the client to bed.
- D. Encourage the client to breathe more deeply.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the client's oxygen saturation level dropping during ambulation indicates an inadequate oxygen supply. The first action the nurse should take is to discontinue ambulation and return the client to bed. This helps stabilize the oxygen level by reducing the oxygen demand placed on the client during physical activity. Increasing the oxygen flow rate without addressing the underlying issue of oxygen saturation dropping may not be effective. Instructing the client to rest is not enough to address the immediate need for stabilization of oxygen levels. Encouraging the client to breathe more deeply may not be sufficient to overcome the oxygen saturation drop caused by inadequate oxygen supply during ambulation.
5. A female client reports that her hair is becoming coarse and breaking off, the outer part of her eyebrows has disappeared, and her eyes are all puffy. Which follow-up question is best for the nurse to ask?
- A. Is there a history of female baldness in your family?
- B. Are you under any unusual stress at home or work?
- C. Do you work with hazardous chemicals?
- D. Have you noticed any changes in your fingernails?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the manifestations reported by the client, such as coarse hair, missing eyebrows, and puffy eyes, are indicative of hypothyroidism. Changes in the fingernails, such as brittle or pitted nails, can also be associated with hypothyroidism. Option A is incorrect as female baldness is not directly related to the reported symptoms. Option B is less relevant as stress typically does not cause these specific symptoms. Option C is also less relevant as exposure to hazardous chemicals would present with different symptoms.
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