Nursing Elites

1. What is the first action the nurse should implement for a client admitted with acute pancreatitis?

• A. Administer intravenous fluids as prescribed
• B. Administer pain medication as prescribed
• C. Place the client on NPO status
• D. Assess the client's abdomen for distention

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Placing the client on NPO status is the priority action for a client with acute pancreatitis. This step is crucial to rest the pancreas, prevent pancreatic stimulation, and decrease enzyme production. By withholding oral intake, the digestive system is given a chance to rest and recover. Administering intravenous fluids may be necessary but should come after placing the client on NPO status. Pain medication can be administered once the client is stabilized. Assessing the client's abdomen for distention is important but is not the initial priority in managing acute pancreatitis.

2. The nurse is administering an IV medication to a client with a history of anaphylaxis. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Stay with the client throughout the infusion.
• B. Keep emergency resuscitation equipment at the bedside.
• C. Obtain the client's allergy history.
• D. Ask the client about past allergic reactions to medications.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Keeping emergency resuscitation equipment at the bedside is crucial in case the client experiences anaphylaxis during the infusion. While staying with the client throughout the infusion (Choice A) is important, having immediate access to emergency equipment takes priority in this situation. Obtaining the client's allergy history (Choice C) and asking about past allergic reactions to medications (Choice D) are relevant but do not address the immediate need for emergency intervention in case of anaphylaxis.

3. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease is scheduled for a renal biopsy. Which laboratory value should the nurse report to the healthcare provider before the procedure?

• A. Serum creatinine of 1.8 mg/dl
• B. Prothrombin time of 18 seconds
• C. Hemoglobin of 9 g/dl
• D. Platelet count of 90,000/mm3

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A platelet count of 90,000/mm3 is low and concerning for a client scheduled for a renal biopsy, as it increases the risk of bleeding. Thrombocytopenia, indicated by a low platelet count, can lead to impaired blood clotting, posing a significant risk of bleeding during or after the biopsy procedure. Elevated serum creatinine levels may be expected in chronic kidney disease but are not directly related to bleeding risk during a renal biopsy. Prothrombin time and hemoglobin levels are not as directly relevant to the bleeding risk associated with a renal biopsy as platelet count.

4. At 0600 while admitting a woman for a scheduled repeat cesarean section (C-Section), the client tells the nurse that she drank a cup of coffee at 0400 because she wanted to avoid getting a headache. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Ensure preoperative lab results are available
• B. Start prescribed IV with lactated Ringer's
• C. Inform the anesthesia care provider
• D. Contact the client's obstetrician

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to inform the anesthesia care provider. The patient's ingestion of coffee violates the NPO (nothing by mouth) guidelines before surgery, which increases the risk of aspiration during anesthesia. Informing the anesthesia care provider promptly allows for appropriate assessment and decision-making regarding the patient's anesthesia plan. Ensuring preoperative lab results, starting an IV, or contacting the obstetrician can be important steps but addressing the NPO violation and its implications on anesthesia safety take precedence.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube in place following a pneumothorax. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 94%
• B. Crepitus around the insertion site
• C. Subcutaneous emphysema
• D. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Subcutaneous emphysema is the assessment finding that requires immediate intervention in a client with a chest tube following a pneumothorax. Subcutaneous emphysema can indicate a pneumothorax recurrence or air leak, which can compromise respiratory function and lead to serious complications. Oxygen saturation of 94% may be concerning but does not require immediate intervention as it is still within an acceptable range. Crepitus around the insertion site is common after chest tube placement and may not always indicate a problem. A blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is within normal limits and does not require immediate intervention in this context.

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