Nursing Elites

1. What is the first action the nurse should implement for a client admitted with acute pancreatitis?

• A. Administer intravenous fluids as prescribed
• B. Administer pain medication as prescribed
• C. Place the client on NPO status
• D. Assess the client's abdomen for distention

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Placing the client on NPO status is the priority action for a client with acute pancreatitis. This step is crucial to rest the pancreas, prevent pancreatic stimulation, and decrease enzyme production. By withholding oral intake, the digestive system is given a chance to rest and recover. Administering intravenous fluids may be necessary but should come after placing the client on NPO status. Pain medication can be administered once the client is stabilized. Assessing the client's abdomen for distention is important but is not the initial priority in managing acute pancreatitis.

2. Following a gunshot wound to the abdomen, a young adult male had an emergency bowel resection and received multiple blood products. His current blood pressure is 78/52 mm Hg, and he is being mechanically ventilated. His oxygen saturation is 87%. Laboratory values indicate hemoglobin of 7 g/dL, platelets of 20,000/mm³, and white blood cells of 2,000/mm³. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Transfuse packed red blood cells.
• B. Obtain blood and sputum cultures.
• C. Infuse 1000 ml of normal saline.
• D. Titrate oxygen to keep O2 saturation above 90%.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to transfuse packed red blood cells first. The client's low hemoglobin level of 7 g/dL indicates severe anemia, which requires immediate transfusion to increase oxygen-carrying capacity. While obtaining blood and sputum cultures (Choice B) is important to identify potential infections, addressing the critical issue of anemia takes precedence. Infusing normal saline (Choice C) may help with volume status but does not address the primary concern of low hemoglobin. Titration of oxygen (Choice D) is crucial, but transfusion to improve oxygen-carrying capacity should be the priority in this scenario.

3. A 3-year-old boy with a congenital heart defect is brought to the clinic by his mother. During the assessment, the mother asks the nurse why her child is at the 5th percentile for growth. What response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. Does your child seem mentally slower than his peers also?
• B. His smaller size is probably due to the heart disease
• C. Haven't you been feeding him according to recommended daily allowances for children?
• D. You should not worry about the growth tables. They are only averages for children

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Heart disease can affect growth, leading to smaller size in children.

4. A client with a history of diabetes mellitus is admitted with a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dl and is unresponsive. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer 50% dextrose IV push.
• B. Administer insulin as prescribed.
• C. Monitor the client's urine output.
• D. Obtain a blood glucose level.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering 50% dextrose IV push is the first priority in treating a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dl in a client who is unresponsive due to hyperglycemia. This intervention is crucial to rapidly raise the client's blood glucose levels and address the emergency situation. Administering insulin (Choice B) would further lower the blood glucose level, worsening the client's condition. Monitoring urine output (Choice C) and obtaining a blood glucose level (Choice D) are important assessments but are secondary to the immediate need to address the high blood glucose levels causing the client's unresponsiveness.

5. A female client who is admitted to the mental health unit for opiate dependency is receiving clonidine 0.1 mg PO for withdrawal symptoms. The client begins to complain of feeling nervous and tells the nurse that her bones are itching. Which finding should the nurse identify as a contraindication for administering the medication?

• A. Blood pressure 90/76 mm Hg.
• B. Heart rate of 85 bpm.
• C. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths/minute.
• D. Temperature of 99°F (37.2°C).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clonidine can lower blood pressure, so a BP of 90/76 mm Hg may indicate that it is unsafe to administer another dose. In this situation, the low blood pressure reading indicates that the client is already experiencing hypotension, which is a common side effect of clonidine. Administering more clonidine could further lower the blood pressure, leading to potential complications. The heart rate, respiratory rate, and temperature are within normal limits and do not serve as contraindications for administering clonidine in this scenario.

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