Nursing Elites

1. A client with acute pancreatitis is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Serum glucose
• C. Serum triglycerides
• D. Serum calcium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with acute pancreatitis receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), the nurse should monitor serum triglycerides closely. Acute pancreatitis can lead to fat malabsorption, making the client susceptible to hypertriglyceridemia. Monitoring serum triglycerides is crucial to prevent complications such as hyperlipidemia. While monitoring serum potassium, glucose, and calcium levels is also essential in various conditions, in this scenario, the primary concern is the risk of developing hypertriglyceridemia due to fat malabsorption.

2. An adult female client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) asks the nurse if she can continue taking over-the-counter medications. Which medication provides the greatest threat to this client?

• A. Magnesium hydroxide (Maalox).
• B. Birth control pills.
• C. Cough syrup containing codeine.
• D. Cold medication containing alcohol.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Magnesium hydroxide (Maalox). In clients with CKD, magnesium can accumulate to toxic levels due to decreased excretion by the kidneys. Therefore, it poses the greatest threat to this client population. Choice B, birth control pills, is not typically contraindicated in CKD. Choice C, cough syrup containing codeine, may require dose adjustments but is not the greatest threat. Choice D, cold medication containing alcohol, is a concern mainly in liver disease, not CKD.

3. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with jaundice and ascites. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer a diuretic as prescribed.
• B. Administer lactulose as prescribed.
• C. Monitor the client's weight daily.
• D. Assess the client's neurological status.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering lactulose is the first priority in managing a client with cirrhosis to reduce ammonia levels and prevent worsening hepatic encephalopathy. Lactulose helps in decreasing the absorption of ammonia in the intestines and promotes its excretion through the stool. This intervention is crucial in preventing the development or progression of hepatic encephalopathy. Administering a diuretic (Choice A) may be necessary to manage ascites, but it is not the priority over lactulose in this scenario. Monitoring the client's weight (Choice C) is important to assess fluid retention but is not the first intervention required. Assessing the client's neurological status (Choice D) is essential in cirrhosis, but administering lactulose takes precedence to prevent hepatic encephalopathy.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) who is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
• B. Heart rate of 110 beats per minute
• C. Fever of 100.4°F
• D. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A fever of 100.4°F is the most concerning assessment finding in a client with ESRD scheduled for hemodialysis. This elevation in temperature may indicate an underlying infection, which can lead to serious complications in individuals with compromised renal function. Prompt intervention is necessary to prevent the spread of infection and deterioration of the client's condition. The other vital signs mentioned, such as blood pressure, heart rate, and respiratory rate, while important to monitor, are within acceptable ranges and do not pose an immediate threat like a fever indicative of infection.

5. A woman with an anxiety disorder calls her obstetrician's office and tells the nurse of increased anxiety since the normal vaginal delivery of her son three weeks ago. Since she is breastfeeding, she stopped taking her antianxiety medications, but thinks she may need to start taking them again because of her increased anxiety. What response is best for the nurse to provide this woman?

• A. Describe the transmission of drugs to the infant through breast milk
• B. Encourage her to use stress-relieving alternatives, such as deep breathing exercises
• C. Inform her that some antianxiety medications are safe to take while breastfeeding
• D. Explain that anxiety is a normal response for the mother of a 3-week-old.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: There are several antianxiety medications that are not contraindicated for breastfeeding mothers, so it is important to inform her of this option.

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