HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam
1. The nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which assessment finding is most concerning?
- A. Jugular venous distention
- B. Peripheral edema
- C. Shortness of breath
- D. Crackles in the lungs
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Shortness of breath is the most concerning finding in a client with left-sided heart failure as it indicates worsening pulmonary congestion and impaired gas exchange. This symptom suggests that the client is experiencing significant difficulty in breathing and inadequate oxygenation, requiring immediate intervention. Jugular venous distention (Choice A) is often seen in right-sided heart failure, while peripheral edema (Choice B) and crackles in the lungs (Choice D) are common manifestations of left-sided heart failure but are not as acutely concerning as severe shortness of breath, which can rapidly progress to respiratory distress if not addressed promptly.
2. The healthcare provider explains through an interpreter the risks and benefits of a scheduled surgical procedure to a non-English speaking female client. The client gives verbal consent, and the healthcare provider leaves, instructing the nurse to witness the signature on the consent form. The client and the interpreter then speak together in the foreign language for an additional 2 minutes until the interpreter concludes, 'She says it is OK.' What action should the nurse take next?
- A. Ask for a full explanation from the interpreter of the witnessed discussion.
- B. Have the client sign the consent form.
- C. Document the conversation and witness the consent.
- D. Ask the client directly if she has any questions.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to ask for a full explanation from the interpreter of the witnessed discussion. Verbal consent is not sufficient; it is crucial to ensure that the client fully comprehends the risks and benefits of the surgical procedure. By asking the interpreter to provide a detailed explanation of the discussion, the nurse can confirm that the client has given informed consent. Having the client sign the consent form (Choice B) without ensuring complete understanding may lead to potential misunderstandings. Documenting the conversation and witnessing the consent (Choice C) is not enough to guarantee the client's comprehension. Asking the client directly if she has any questions (Choice D) may not be effective if language barriers persist.
3. An adult female client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder. After starting medication therapy, the nurse notices the client has more energy, is giving away her belongings, and has an elevated mood. Which intervention is best for the nurse to implement?
- A. Support the client by telling her what wonderful progress she is making.
- B. Ask the client if she has had any recent thoughts of harming herself.
- C. Reassure the client that the antidepressant drugs are apparently effective.
- D. Tell the client to keep her belongings because she will need them at discharge.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client with major depressive disorder shows signs of increased energy, giving away belongings, and an elevated mood, it could indicate a shift towards suicidal behavior. Therefore, the best intervention for the nurse is to ask the client if she has had any recent thoughts of harming herself. This is crucial to assess the client's risk for suicide and provide necessary interventions. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the potential risk of harm to the client and do not prioritize the immediate assessment required in this situation.
4. A female client who is admitted to the mental health unit for opiate dependency is receiving clonidine 0.1 mg PO for withdrawal symptoms. The client begins to complain of feeling nervous and tells the nurse that her bones are itching. Which finding should the nurse identify as a contraindication for administering the medication?
- A. Blood pressure 90/76 mm Hg.
- B. Heart rate of 85 bpm.
- C. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths/minute.
- D. Temperature of 99°F (37.2°C).
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Clonidine can lower blood pressure, so a BP of 90/76 mm Hg may indicate that it is unsafe to administer another dose. In this situation, the low blood pressure reading indicates that the client is already experiencing hypotension, which is a common side effect of clonidine. Administering more clonidine could further lower the blood pressure, leading to potential complications. The heart rate, respiratory rate, and temperature are within normal limits and do not serve as contraindications for administering clonidine in this scenario.
5. A client who recently underwent a tracheostomy is being prepared for discharge to home. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to include in the discharge plan?
- A. Explain how to use communication tools.
- B. Teach tracheal suctioning techniques.
- C. Encourage self-care and independence.
- D. Demonstrate how to clean the tracheostomy site.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important instruction for a client who recently underwent a tracheostomy is to teach tracheal suctioning techniques. Suctioning helps clear secretions and maintain an open airway, which is critical for the client's respiratory function and overall well-being. While communication tools, self-care, and cleaning the tracheostomy site are important aspects of care, ensuring proper suctioning techniques is crucial for preventing complications and ensuring the client's safety.
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