Nursing Elites

1. A client with type 2 diabetes is admitted with hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome (HHS). Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer intravenous fluids.
• B. Monitor the client's urine output.
• C. Obtain a blood glucose level.
• D. Administer 50% dextrose IV push.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer 50% dextrose IV push first. In hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome, the main goal is to rapidly reduce blood glucose levels to prevent further complications. Administering dextrose intravenously can help reverse the effects of high blood glucose levels quickly. Administering intravenous fluids, monitoring urine output, and obtaining a blood glucose level are important interventions but are not the first priority in treating HHS. Administering 50% dextrose IV push takes precedence as it directly addresses the elevated blood glucose levels.

2. An adult client comes to the clinic and reports his concern over a lump that 'just popped up on my neck about a week ago.' In performing an examination of the lump, the nurse palpates a large, non-tender, hardened left subclavian lymph node. There is no overlying tissue inflammation. What do these findings suggest?

• A. Malignancy
• B. Infection
• C. Benign cyst
• D. Lymphadenitis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The findings of a large, non-tender, hardened lymph node, especially in the absence of overlying tissue inflammation, are indicative of malignancy. These characteristics raise suspicion for cancer, prompting the need for further investigation. Choice B, Infection, is incorrect because infection would typically present as a tender and possibly swollen lymph node. Choice C, Benign cyst, is incorrect as cysts are usually soft and movable. Choice D, Lymphadenitis, is incorrect as lymphadenitis usually presents with tender and enlarged lymph nodes in response to an infection.

3. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with hepatic encephalopathy. Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum ammonia level of 80 mcg/dl
• B. Bilirubin level of 3.0 mg/dl
• C. Serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L
• D. Prothrombin time of 18 seconds

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A prothrombin time of 18 seconds is most concerning in a client with hepatic encephalopathy as it indicates impaired liver function and an increased risk of bleeding. This requires immediate intervention to prevent bleeding complications. Choice A, serum ammonia level of 80 mcg/dl, is elevated but not as urgent as the abnormal prothrombin time. Choice B, bilirubin level of 3.0 mg/dl, is elevated but does not directly indicate an urgent need for intervention in this situation. Choice C, serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L, is within the normal range and does not require immediate intervention.

4. A client with type 1 diabetes is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which clinical finding is most concerning?

• A. Serum glucose of 500 mg/dL
• B. Serum glucose of 600 mg/dL
• C. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
• D. Serum bicarbonate of 18 mEq/L

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A serum bicarbonate level of 18 mEq/L is most concerning in a client with DKA as it indicates metabolic acidosis, requiring immediate intervention. In DKA, the body produces excess ketones, leading to metabolic acidosis. A low serum bicarbonate level is a key indicator of this acid-base imbalance. Elevated serum glucose levels are expected in DKA but are managed through insulin therapy. Serum potassium levels can fluctuate in DKA due to insulin deficiency, but a value of 5.5 mEq/L is not as immediately concerning as metabolic acidosis. Therefore, the most critical finding in this scenario is the low serum bicarbonate level.

5. To reduce staff nurse role ambiguity, which strategy should the nurse-manager implement?

• A. Review the staff nurse job description to ensure that it is clear, accurate, and current.
• B. Conduct regular meetings to clarify roles.
• C. Increase communication between team members.
• D. Provide additional training for new nurses.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Review the staff nurse job description to ensure that it is clear, accurate, and current. By ensuring that job descriptions are clear and up-to-date, nurse-managers can reduce ambiguity and confusion about roles and responsibilities. Choice B, conducting regular meetings to clarify roles, may help but may not address the root cause of ambiguity. Choice C, increasing communication between team members, is important but may not specifically target role ambiguity. Choice D, providing additional training for new nurses, is valuable but may not directly address role ambiguity among existing staff.

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