Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) who is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
• B. Heart rate of 110 beats per minute
• C. Fever of 100.4°F
• D. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A fever of 100.4°F is the most concerning assessment finding in a client with ESRD scheduled for hemodialysis. This elevation in temperature may indicate an underlying infection, which can lead to serious complications in individuals with compromised renal function. Prompt intervention is necessary to prevent the spread of infection and deterioration of the client's condition. The other vital signs mentioned, such as blood pressure, heart rate, and respiratory rate, while important to monitor, are within acceptable ranges and do not pose an immediate threat like a fever indicative of infection.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Increased fatigue
• B. Headache
• C. Elevated blood pressure
• D. Low urine output

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) receiving erythropoietin therapy, an elevated blood pressure is the most concerning assessment finding. This finding can indicate worsening hypertension, which requires prompt intervention to prevent complications such as cardiovascular events or further kidney damage. Increased fatigue (Choice A) is a common symptom in CKD and can be expected with the condition itself or the treatment. Headache (Choice B) can also occur but is less specific to CKD or its treatment. Low urine output (Choice D) is a concern in CKD but may not be directly related to erythropoietin therapy.

3. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with hepatic encephalopathy. Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum ammonia level of 80 mcg/dl
• B. Bilirubin level of 3.0 mg/dl
• C. Serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L
• D. Prothrombin time of 18 seconds

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A prothrombin time of 18 seconds is most concerning in a client with hepatic encephalopathy as it indicates impaired liver function and an increased risk of bleeding. This requires immediate intervention to prevent bleeding complications. Choice A, serum ammonia level of 80 mcg/dl, is elevated but not as urgent as the abnormal prothrombin time. Choice B, bilirubin level of 3.0 mg/dl, is elevated but does not directly indicate an urgent need for intervention in this situation. Choice C, serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L, is within the normal range and does not require immediate intervention.

4. When a client with a history of atrial fibrillation is admitted with a new onset of confusion, which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate preparing the client for first?

• A. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
• B. Chest X-ray
• C. Arterial blood gases (ABGs)
• D. Echocardiogram

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is an Electrocardiogram (ECG). When a client with a history of atrial fibrillation presents with new-onset confusion, an ECG is crucial to assess for cardiac ischemia, which could be a potential cause of the confusion. A chest X-ray (Choice B) is not typically the first-line diagnostic test for evaluating confusion in a client with atrial fibrillation. Arterial blood gases (ABGs) (Choice C) are more useful in assessing oxygenation and acid-base balance rather than the cause of confusion in this scenario. While an echocardiogram (Choice D) provides valuable information about cardiac structure and function, it is usually not the initial diagnostic test needed in the evaluation of acute confusion in a client with atrial fibrillation.

5. A male client with an antisocial personality disorder is admitted to an inpatient mental health unit for multiple substance dependencies. When providing a history, the client justifies to the nurse his use of illicit drugs. Based on this pattern of behavior, this client's history is most likely to include which finding?

• A. Multiple convictions for misdemeanors and class B felonies.
• B. A history of stable employment
• C. Strong relationships with family members
• D. A pattern of seeking help when needed

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Multiple convictions for misdemeanors and class B felonies. Clients with antisocial personality disorder often engage in behaviors that disregard societal rules and norms, leading to legal issues and criminal activities. This behavior is characteristic of individuals with antisocial personality disorder. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because individuals with this disorder are less likely to have stable employment, strong family relationships, or seek help when needed due to their pattern of defiance and disregard for authority and rules.

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