HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Quizlet
1. While performing a skin inspection for a female adult client, the nurse observes a rash that is well circumscribed, has silvery scales and plaques, and is located on the elbows and knees. These assessment findings are likely to indicate which condition?
- A. Tinea corporis
- B. Herpes zoster
- C. Psoriasis
- D. Drug reaction
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Psoriasis. Psoriasis commonly presents with well-circumscribed, silvery scales and plaques, typically found on extensor surfaces like elbows and knees. Tinea corporis (A) presents as a circular rash, herpes zoster (B) presents as a painful rash following a dermatomal pattern, and drug reactions (D) have variable presentations not specific to elbows and knees with silvery scales and plaques.
2. The mother of a one-month-old boy born at home brings the infant to his first well-baby visit. The infant was born two weeks after his due date and is described as a 'good, quiet baby' who almost never cries. To assess for hypothyroidism, what question is most important for the nurse to ask the mother?
- A. Has your son had any immunizations yet?
- B. Is your son sleepy and difficult to feed?
- C. Are you breastfeeding or bottle-feeding your son?
- D. Were any relatives born with birth defects?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Excessive sleepiness and difficulty feeding can be signs of hypothyroidism in infants. Asking about the infant's sleepiness and feeding pattern is crucial in assessing for hypothyroidism. Choice A is incorrect because immunizations are not directly related to hypothyroidism. Choice C is about feeding method and not specific to hypothyroidism. Choice D is unrelated as it asks about relatives with birth defects, which does not directly assess the infant's condition.
3. An older female client tells the nurse that her muscles have gradually been getting weaker. What is the best initial response by the nurse?
- A. Explain that this is an expected occurrence with aging.
- B. Observe the lower extremities for signs of muscle atrophy.
- C. Review the medical record for recent diagnostic test results.
- D. Ask the client to describe the changes that have occurred.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best initial response by the nurse when the client reports muscle weakness is to ask the client to describe the changes that have occurred. This approach allows the nurse to gain a better understanding of the client's experience, the extent of weakness, any associated symptoms, and potential triggers. By actively listening to the client's description, the nurse can gather valuable information that will aid in a comprehensive assessment and development of a tailored care plan. Choice A is incorrect because assuming muscle weakness is solely due to aging without further assessment can lead to overlooking potential underlying causes. Choice B is incorrect as observing for signs of muscle atrophy should come after gathering information directly from the client. Choice C is incorrect as reviewing diagnostic test results should not be the initial step when the client's current experience is being shared.
4. The practical nurse (PN) is assigned to work with three registered nurses (RNs) who are caring for neurologically compromised clients. The client with which change in status is best to assign to the PN?
- A. Diabetic ketoacidosis with a Glasgow Coma Scale score change from 10 to 7.
- B. Myxedema coma with a blood pressure change from 80/50 to 70/40.
- C. Viral meningitis with a temperature change from 101°F to 102°F.
- D. Subdural hematoma with a blood pressure change from 150/80 to 170/60.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The client with viral meningitis and a temperature change is the most stable and appropriate for assignment to the PN. A change in temperature from 101°F to 102°F is not as critical as changes in Glasgow Coma Scale score, blood pressure, or wider blood pressure variations. The other clients require more complex monitoring and intervention due to their critical changes in status.
5. The nurse is caring for a client with a history of myocardial infarction who is experiencing chest pain. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer oxygen therapy as prescribed.
- B. Obtain an electrocardiogram (ECG).
- C. Administer nitroglycerin sublingually as prescribed.
- D. Administer aspirin as prescribed.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen therapy is the priority intervention in managing chest pain in a client with a history of myocardial infarction. Oxygen helps improve oxygenation to the heart muscle, which is crucial in reducing further damage. Obtaining an electrocardiogram (ECG) is important to assess for changes indicative of myocardial infarction, but providing oxygen takes precedence as it directly addresses the physiological need for oxygen. Administering nitroglycerin and aspirin are important interventions but are typically implemented after oxygen therapy to address vasodilation and antiplatelet effects, respectively.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access