while performing a skin inspection for a female adult client the nurse observes a rash that is well circumscribed has silvery scales and plaques and i
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Quizlet

1. While performing a skin inspection for a female adult client, the nurse observes a rash that is well circumscribed, has silvery scales and plaques, and is located on the elbows and knees. These assessment findings are likely to indicate which condition?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Psoriasis. Psoriasis commonly presents with well-circumscribed, silvery scales and plaques, typically found on extensor surfaces like elbows and knees. Tinea corporis (A) presents as a circular rash, herpes zoster (B) presents as a painful rash following a dermatomal pattern, and drug reactions (D) have variable presentations not specific to elbows and knees with silvery scales and plaques.

2. A preschooler with constipation needs to increase fiber intake. Which snack suggestion should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Oatmeal cookies are the best snack suggestion for a preschooler with constipation needing to increase fiber intake. Oatmeal is high in fiber, which helps relieve constipation. Cheese sticks, yogurt, and apple slices are not as high in fiber content as oatmeal and may not be as effective in addressing the constipation issue in this scenario.

3. The healthcare provider prescribes carboprost tromethamine (Hemabate) 250 mcg IM for a multigravida postpartum client who is experiencing heavy, bright red vaginal bleeding. Prior to administering this medication, which intervention should the RN implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Hemabate can cause severe nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea, so administering the prescribed antiemetic can help manage these side effects. Choice B is incorrect as there is no indication in the scenario to administer IV fluids. Choice C is not the priority at this stage as the client's condition does not necessitate an immediate blood transfusion. Choice D is unnecessary every 5 minutes; monitoring vital signs should be done but not at such a high frequency.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client with a history of hypertension who is currently taking a diuretic. Which assessment finding is most important to report to the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is low and places the client at risk for cardiac arrhythmias, requiring immediate intervention. Hypokalemia can result from diuretic use and can lead to serious complications such as irregular heart rhythms. Monitoring and correcting potassium levels are crucial in preventing adverse cardiac events. The other options, though important, do not pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to the low potassium level.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) who is receiving mechanical ventilation. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A tidal volume of 300 ml is concerning in a client with ARDS on mechanical ventilation because it indicates hypoventilation, which can lead to inadequate gas exchange and worsening respiratory status. This finding requires immediate intervention to optimize ventilation and oxygenation. Options A, B, and D are not as critical in this scenario. An oxygen saturation of 90% may be acceptable depending on the client's baseline condition and the target range set by the healthcare provider. A respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute is slightly elevated but may not be immediately alarming. A blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is within normal limits and does not require urgent intervention.

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