Nursing Elites

1. While performing a skin inspection for a female adult client, the nurse observes a rash that is well circumscribed, has silvery scales and plaques, and is located on the elbows and knees. These assessment findings are likely to indicate which condition?

• A. Tinea corporis
• B. Herpes zoster
• C. Psoriasis
• D. Drug reaction

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Psoriasis. Psoriasis commonly presents with well-circumscribed, silvery scales and plaques, typically found on extensor surfaces like elbows and knees. Tinea corporis (A) presents as a circular rash, herpes zoster (B) presents as a painful rash following a dermatomal pattern, and drug reactions (D) have variable presentations not specific to elbows and knees with silvery scales and plaques.

2. A client with a traumatic brain injury becomes progressively less responsive to stimuli. The client has a 'Do Not Resuscitate' prescription, and the nurse observes that the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) has stopped turning the client from side to side as previously scheduled. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Advise the UAP to resume positioning the client on schedule
• B. Notify the healthcare provider
• C. Document the UAP's actions
• D. Discuss the situation with the client’s family

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Continuing to turn the client is crucial to prevent complications such as pressure ulcers, even if the client is less responsive. Advising the UAP to resume positioning the client on schedule is the most appropriate action in this situation. This action ensures that the client's care needs are met and helps prevent potential complications. Notifying the healthcare provider or documenting the UAP's actions may delay the necessary care for the client. Discussing the situation with the client's family is important but addressing the immediate care need of turning the client takes priority.

3. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is scheduled to receive a dose of methotrexate. Which laboratory result is most important for the nurse to review before administering the medication?

• A. White blood cell count
• B. Liver function tests
• C. Kidney function tests
• D. Complete blood count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Liver function tests. Before administering methotrexate, it is crucial to review liver function tests due to the medication's potential hepatotoxic effects. Methotrexate can cause liver damage, so monitoring liver function is essential to prevent any serious complications. While white blood cell count, kidney function tests, and complete blood count are important parameters to monitor in certain situations, they are not the most critical before administering methotrexate.

4. An older female client tells the nurse that her muscles have gradually been getting weaker. What is the best initial response by the nurse?

• A. Explain that this is an expected occurrence with aging.
• B. Observe the lower extremities for signs of muscle atrophy.
• C. Review the medical record for recent diagnostic test results.
• D. Ask the client to describe the changes that have occurred.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best initial response by the nurse when the client reports muscle weakness is to ask the client to describe the changes that have occurred. This approach allows the nurse to gain a better understanding of the client's experience, the extent of weakness, any associated symptoms, and potential triggers. By actively listening to the client's description, the nurse can gather valuable information that will aid in a comprehensive assessment and development of a tailored care plan. Choice A is incorrect because assuming muscle weakness is solely due to aging without further assessment can lead to overlooking potential underlying causes. Choice B is incorrect as observing for signs of muscle atrophy should come after gathering information directly from the client. Choice C is incorrect as reviewing diagnostic test results should not be the initial step when the client's current experience is being shared.

5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value is most concerning?

• A. INR of 3.0
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 15 seconds
• C. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dl
• D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 3.0 is most concerning in a client prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) as it indicates a high risk of bleeding, requiring immediate intervention. A high INR value suggests that the blood is taking longer to clot, putting the patient at an increased risk of hemorrhage. Prothrombin time (PT) measures how long it takes for blood to clot, but the specific value of 15 seconds is within the normal range. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dl indicates mild anemia and does not directly relate to the risk of bleeding associated with warfarin therapy. White blood cell count assesses immune function and infection risk, but it is not directly related to the anticoagulant effects of warfarin.

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