Nursing Elites

1. The client with chronic pancreatitis should be taught how to monitor for which of the following possible additional problems associated with pancreatic disease?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Diabetes
• C. Hypothyroidism
• D. Graves' disease

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is diabetes. In chronic pancreatitis, the pancreas may become unable to produce sufficient insulin, leading to diabetes. This connection underscores the importance of monitoring blood sugar levels and understanding the signs and symptoms of diabetes in clients with chronic pancreatitis. Choice A, hypertension, is not directly associated with pancreatic disease but rather with cardiovascular health. Choice C, hypothyroidism, and Choice D, Graves' disease, are unrelated to pancreatic disease and are endocrine disorders affecting the thyroid gland.

2. Which of the following is an inappropriate item to include in planning care for a severely neutropenic client?

• A. Transfuse neutrophils (granulocytes) to prevent infection.
• B. Exclude raw vegetables from the diet.
• C. Avoid administering rectal suppositories.
• D. Prohibit vases of fresh flowers and plants in the client's room.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Transfusing neutrophils (granulocytes) to prevent infection is inappropriate in the care of a severely neutropenic client. Neutrophils normally comprise 70% of all white blood cells and can be beneficial in a selected population of infected, severely granulocytopenic clients (less than 500/mm3) who do not respond to antibiotic therapy and who are expected to experience prolonged suppression of granulocyte production. Therefore, transfusing neutrophils is not a standard practice in caring for neutropenic clients. The other choices are appropriate in caring for a severely neutropenic client: excluding raw vegetables from the diet to reduce the risk of infections from potential pathogens, avoiding administering rectal suppositories to prevent any injury or infection due to mucosal damage, and prohibiting vases of fresh flowers and plants in the client's room to minimize the risk of exposure to environmental pathogens.

3. A 32-year-old male with a complaint of dizziness has an order for Morphine via IV. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Check the patient's chest x-ray results.
• B. Retake vitals including blood pressure.
• C. Perform a neurological screening on the patient.
• D. Request the physician on-call to assess the patient.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take in this situation is to retake the patient's vitals, including blood pressure. Dizziness can be a sign of hypotension, which may be a contraindication for administering Morphine. Checking the chest x-ray results (Choice A) would not be the priority in this case as addressing the dizziness is more urgent. Performing a neurological screening (Choice C) may be important but not the first step when a patient presents with dizziness and an order for Morphine. Requesting the physician to assess the patient (Choice D) should come after the initial assessment and vitals retake.

4. A client has a 10% dextrose in water IV solution running. He is scheduled to receive his antiepileptic drug, phenytoin (Dilantin), at this time. The nurse knows that the phenytoin:

• A. is given after the D10W is finished.
• B. should be given at the time it is due in the medication port closest to the client.
• C. can be piggybacked into the D10W solution now.
• D. is incompatible with dextrose solutions.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Phenytoin is incompatible with dextrose solutions as they will precipitate when mixed together. Therefore, it should not be piggybacked into the D10W solution or given through the same port. Instead, normal saline should be used to flush before and after administering phenytoin to prevent any interaction with the dextrose solution. Delaying the administration of an antiepileptic drug like phenytoin to maintain therapeutic blood levels is not recommended, so it should not be given after the D10W is finished or based on the medication port closest to the client. Choice A is incorrect because administering phenytoin after the D10W is finished is not the correct approach due to the incompatibility with dextrose solutions. Choice B is incorrect as the timing of phenytoin administration should not be based on the medication port closest to the client but on compatibility considerations. Choice C is incorrect as piggybacking phenytoin into the D10W solution is not advisable due to the incompatibility issue.

5. A client had a colostomy done one day ago. Which of the following is an abnormal finding when assessing the stoma?

• A. mild edema
• B. minimal bleeding
• C. rose color
• D. dark red color

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A dark red color is an abnormal finding when assessing the stoma as it indicates inadequate blood supply, possibly due to ischemia. Mild edema, minimal bleeding, and a rose color are expected findings one day post colostomy surgery. Mild edema can be present due to tissue trauma and inflammation, minimal bleeding can occur initially, and a healthy stoma typically appears pink to red, known as a rose color, indicating good blood supply and tissue perfusion. Therefore, the dark red color is the abnormal finding in this scenario.

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