Nursing Elites

1. One drug can alter the absorption of another drug. One drug increases intestinal motility. Which effect does this have on the second drug?

• A. None; absorption of the second drug is not affected.
• B. The increased gut motility decreases the absorption of the second drug.
• C. The absorption of the second drug cannot be predicted.
• D. Less of the second drug is absorbed.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When one drug increases intestinal motility, it accelerates the movement of the second drug through the system. Since most oral medications are absorbed in the intestine, the faster transit time decreases the absorption of the second drug. Therefore, less of the second drug is absorbed. Choice A is incorrect because the increased gut motility does affect the absorption of the second drug. Choice C is incorrect as the effect of increased intestinal motility on drug absorption can be predicted based on pharmacokinetic principles. Choice B is incorrect as increased gut motility would not increase but decrease the absorption of the second drug.

2. A nurse has been ordered to set up Buck's traction on a patient's lower extremity due to a femur fracture. Which of the following applies to Buck's traction?

• A. A weight greater than 10 lbs. should be used.
• B. The line of pull is upward at an angle.
• C. The line of pull is straight
• D. A weight greater than 20 lbs. should be used.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is that the line of pull is straight for Buck's traction. This type of traction is applied to maintain alignment and immobilization of fractures, typically involving the lower extremities. A straight line of pull helps to provide the necessary countertraction to keep the fractured bone in proper alignment. Choices A and D are incorrect because Buck's traction commonly uses a weight range between 5-10 lbs, and using a weight greater than 10 or 20 lbs would not be appropriate or safe. Choice B is incorrect as well since the line of pull for Buck's traction is straight, not upward at an angle.

3. The charge nurse on a cardiac unit tells you a patient is exhibiting signs of right-sided heart failure. Which of the following would not indicate right-sided heart failure?

• A. Muscle tetany
• B. Syncope
• C. Numbness
• D. Anxiety

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Anxiety.' Anxiety is not a typical sign of right-sided heart failure. Right-sided heart failure usually presents with symptoms such as muscle tetany, syncope, and numbness. Muscle tetany can occur due to electrolyte imbalances seen in heart failure. Syncope can result from decreased cardiac output, leading to decreased perfusion to the brain. Numbness can occur due to poor circulation. While anxiety can be present in patients with various medical conditions, it is more commonly associated with respiratory acidosis or other psychological factors rather than right-sided heart failure.

4. When teaching a client about anti-retroviral therapy for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), the PN should emphasize:

• A. When started, therapy must not be interrupted to prevent viral resistance.
• B. When started, therapy must not be interrupted to prevent opportunistic infection.
• C. Therapy should not be interrupted for one day each month to prevent toxicity.
• D. Therapy should not be interrupted for one week every three months to prevent toxicity.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When teaching a client about anti-retroviral therapy for HIV, it is crucial to emphasize that therapy must not be interrupted to prevent viral resistance. HIV mutates rapidly, and any interruption can lead to the emergence of resistant strains, compromising treatment effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect because keeping the virus in check with anti-retrovirals helps the client's immune system fight off opportunistic infections. Choices C and D are incorrect because therapy should not be interrupted for any reason. If toxicity occurs, the healthcare provider may adjust the treatment regimen by prescribing alternative anti-retroviral drugs.

5. When discussing possible complications of pregnancy with a client, the nurse should explain that all of the following are symptoms of urinary tract infection (UTI). Which of the following is least indicative of UTI during pregnancy?

• A. low back pain
• B. urinary frequency
• C. GI distress
• D. malaise

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Urinary frequency is least indicative of UTI during pregnancy. It is a common minor discomfort of pregnancy caused by pressure of the growing uterus on the bladder. As the uterus rises in the second trimester, there are usually no problems. Frequency may return in the third trimester when the uterus drops into the pelvic cavity. UTI symptoms include low back pain, suprapubic discomfort, and malaise, and are confirmed by laboratory findings. Low back pain, GI distress, and malaise are more closely associated with UTI during pregnancy compared to urinary frequency.

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