Nursing Elites

1. One drug can alter the absorption of another drug. One drug increases intestinal motility. Which effect does this have on the second drug?

• A. None; absorption of the second drug is not affected.
• B. The increased gut motility decreases the absorption of the second drug.
• C. The absorption of the second drug cannot be predicted.
• D. Less of the second drug is absorbed.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When one drug increases intestinal motility, it accelerates the movement of the second drug through the system. Since most oral medications are absorbed in the intestine, the faster transit time decreases the absorption of the second drug. Therefore, less of the second drug is absorbed. Choice A is incorrect because the increased gut motility does affect the absorption of the second drug. Choice C is incorrect as the effect of increased intestinal motility on drug absorption can be predicted based on pharmacokinetic principles. Choice B is incorrect as increased gut motility would not increase but decrease the absorption of the second drug.

2. Which electrolyte imbalance would be the nurse's priority concern in the burn client?

• A. Hypernatremia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hypoalbuminemia
• D. Hypermagnesemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is hyperkalemia. In a burn client, the nurse's priority concern is hyperkalemia due to cell lysis, which releases potassium into the bloodstream. This can lead to dangerous levels of potassium in the blood. Hypernatremia (Choice A) is less likely in burn clients. Hypoalbuminemia (Choice C) can occur but is not the priority in the immediate management of a burn client. Hypermagnesemia (Choice D) is not typically associated with burn injuries.

3. A client has been diagnosed with Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) and transferred to the medical intensive care unit (ICU) following an acute bleeding episode. In the ICU, continuous Heparin drip therapy is initiated. Which of the following assessment findings indicates a positive response to Heparin therapy?

• A. increased platelet count
• B. increased fibrinogen
• C. decreased fibrin split products
• D. decreased bleeding

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the context of DIC, effective Heparin therapy aims to halt the process of intravascular coagulation. One of the indicators of a positive response to Heparin therapy is an increase in fibrinogen levels. Heparin interferes with the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin by thrombin. This interruption helps increase the availability of fibrinogen. While the platelet count may increase due to improved clotting, the primary focus of Heparin therapy is on fibrinogen. Fibrin split products are expected to decrease as the coagulation cascade is controlled. Although decreased bleeding is an ultimate goal, the immediate effect of Heparin is not directly on bleeding but on the coagulation process.

4. When assessing a client with early impairment of oxygen perfusion, such as a pulmonary embolus, the nurse should expect to find restlessness and which of the following symptoms?

• A. cool, clammy skin
• B. bradycardia
• C. tachycardia
• D. eupnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client has early impairment of oxygen perfusion, such as in a pulmonary embolus, the nurse should expect to find restlessness, diaphoresis, tachycardia, and cool skin. Tachycardia is a compensatory mechanism to increase oxygen delivery to tissues. Cool, clammy skin (choice A) is more indicative of impaired oxygen perfusion compared to warm, dry skin. Bradycardia (choice B) is less likely to occur in the early stages and is more common in severe cases. Eupnea (choice D) refers to normal respirations in rate and depth, which may not be altered in early impairment of oxygen perfusion.

5. A 3-day post-operative client with a Left Knee Replacement is complaining of being chilled and nauseated. Her TPR is 100.4-94-28 and Blood Pressure is 146/90. What is the nurse's best action?

• A. Call the surgeon immediately.
• B. Administer Extra Strength Tylenol per orders.
• C. Assess the surgical site.
• D. Offer extra blankets and increase fluids.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to call the surgeon immediately. The client's symptoms of being chilled and nauseated, along with an elevated temperature (100.4�F), could indicate an infection following the knee replacement surgery. In this scenario, prompt action is crucial to prevent any potential complications. Calling the surgeon allows for further assessment, possible diagnostic tests, and appropriate interventions to be initiated. Administering Tylenol or offering blankets and fluids may temporarily alleviate symptoms but do not address the underlying issue of a potential infection. Assessing the surgical site is important but not as urgent as involving the surgeon in this situation.

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