Nursing Elites

1. One drug can alter the absorption of another drug. One drug increases intestinal motility. Which effect does this have on the second drug?

• A. None; absorption of the second drug is not affected.
• B. The increased gut motility decreases the absorption of the second drug.
• C. The absorption of the second drug cannot be predicted.
• D. Less of the second drug is absorbed.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When one drug increases intestinal motility, it accelerates the movement of the second drug through the system. Since most oral medications are absorbed in the intestine, the faster transit time decreases the absorption of the second drug. Therefore, less of the second drug is absorbed. Choice A is incorrect because the increased gut motility does affect the absorption of the second drug. Choice C is incorrect as the effect of increased intestinal motility on drug absorption can be predicted based on pharmacokinetic principles. Choice B is incorrect as increased gut motility would not increase but decrease the absorption of the second drug.

2. In Parkinson's disease, a client's difficulty in performing voluntary movements is known as:

• A. Akinesia.
• B. Dyskinesia.
• C. Chorea.
• D. Dystonia.

Correct answer: C.

Rationale: In Parkinson's disease, the client's difficulty in performing voluntary movements is termed dyskinesia. Dyskinesia refers to the impairment of the ability to execute voluntary muscle movements. Akinesia, on the other hand, refers to the absence or lack of voluntary movement. Chorea is characterized by involuntary, rapid, irregular movements. Dystonia involves sustained muscle contractions resulting in abnormal postures or twisting movements. Therefore, dyskinesia is the specific term used for the described difficulty in Parkinson's disease.

3. A client is admitted to the critical care unit after suffering from a massive cerebral vascular accident. The client's vital signs include BP 160/110, HR 42, Cheyne-Stokes respirations. Based on this assessment, the nurse anticipates the client to be in which acid-base balance?

• A. Respiratory acidosis
• B. Respiratory alkalosis
• C. Metabolic acidosis
• D. Metabolic alkalosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is exhibiting Cheyne-Stokes respirations, which are characterized by periods of deep breathing alternating with apnea. This pattern indicates respiratory insufficiency, resulting in an accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood. The elevated BP and slow heart rate further support the respiratory insufficiency, leading to respiratory acidosis. Therefore, the correct answer is Respiratory acidosis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Respiratory alkalosis is characterized by decreased carbon dioxide levels in the blood, which is not indicated by the client's presentation. Metabolic acidosis results from conditions such as renal failure or diabetic ketoacidosis and is not the primary imbalance in this case. Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by elevated pH and bicarbonate levels, which are not present in the client's vital signs.

4. A nurse is caring for a patient in the step-down unit. The patient has signs of increased intracranial pressure. Which of the following is not a sign of increased intracranial pressure?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Increased pupil size bilaterally
• C. Change in LOC
• D. Vomiting

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Increased pupil size bilaterally.' When assessing for signs of increased intracranial pressure, bilateral pupil dilation is not typically associated with this condition. Instead, unilateral pupil changes, especially one pupil becoming dilated or non-reactive while the other remains normal, are indicative of increased ICP. Bradycardia, a change in level of consciousness (LOC), and vomiting are commonly seen in patients with increased intracranial pressure due to the brain's response to the rising pressure. Therefore, the presence of bilateral pupil dilation goes against the typical pattern observed in patients with increased intracranial pressure.

5. What is the preferred position for a client post liver biopsy procedure?

• A. Fowler's
• B. Right side
• C. Left side
• D. Prone

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct position for a client post liver biopsy procedure is the right side. Placing the client on the right side helps apply pressure to the liver area, which can help in holding pressure and stopping bleeding. Placing the client on the left side may not be as effective in providing direct pressure on the liver. The prone position is also not ideal for post-liver biopsy care as it does not target the liver area directly. Fowler's position, a semi-sitting position, is not typically recommended post liver biopsy as it does not provide the necessary pressure on the liver site.

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