the nurse plans to implement a community health program targeting teenage smoking prior to initiating thi s program which information i s most importa
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HESI RN

Community Health HESI 2023 Quizlet

1. Prior to implementing a community health program targeting teenage smoking, which information is most important for the nurse to obtain?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most important information for the nurse to obtain before implementing a community health program targeting teenage smoking is the prevalence and patterns of smoking among teenagers. Understanding this data is crucial to tailor the program to the specific needs and behaviors of the target group, ensuring it addresses the root causes effectively. Choices A, B, and D are unrelated to the specific needs of the target group and do not provide essential information for designing an effective smoking cessation program for teenagers.

2. A community health nurse is developing a program to reduce the incidence of teen pregnancy. Which strategy is most likely to be effective?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Comprehensive sex education has been shown to be more effective in reducing teen pregnancy rates compared to abstinence-only education. Providing comprehensive sex education equips teens with knowledge about safe sex practices, contraception methods, and healthy relationships, which empowers them to make informed decisions. Distributing free condoms and providing access to reproductive health services are important components, but without proper education, teens may not understand how to use these resources effectively. Promoting abstinence-only education limits information and may not address the reality of teen sexual behavior, potentially leading to higher pregnancy rates.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a new arteriovenous fistula in the left arm for hemodialysis. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Warmth and redness in the client's arm suggest infection or thrombosis of the arteriovenous fistula, which requires immediate intervention to prevent complications. A thrill (A) is a normal finding in a functional arteriovenous fistula, indicating good blood flow. A bruit (C) is also a normal finding on auscultation of a functioning arteriovenous fistula, indicating proper blood flow. The absence of a bruit (D) may indicate a non-functioning fistula, which would need further evaluation but does not require immediate intervention as warmth and redness do.

4. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed enalapril (Vasotec). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Increasing potassium intake can lead to hyperkalemia, especially in clients taking ACE inhibitors like enalapril. Hyperkalemia is a potential side effect of ACE inhibitors and can be exacerbated by consuming potassium-rich foods. Monitoring blood pressure regularly (A) is important when taking antihypertensive medications. Reporting signs of infection (B) is crucial as ACE inhibitors can lower the immune response. Avoiding salt substitutes (C) is necessary because they may contain potassium chloride, leading to increased potassium levels, which can be harmful in combination with ACE inhibitors.

5. In conducting a health assessment for a family with a history of cardiovascular disease, which family member should be prioritized for further evaluation and intervention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The 45-year-old father who smokes and has high cholesterol is at a higher risk for cardiovascular disease due to multiple risk factors. Smoking and high cholesterol are significant contributors to the development of cardiovascular issues. Prioritizing his evaluation and intervention is crucial to address these modifiable risk factors. The other family members, though they may have risk factors as well, do not present with the same level of immediate risk based on the information provided.

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