HESI RN
Community Health HESI 2023 Quizlet
1. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?
- A. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL.
- B. Reticulocyte count of 1%.
- C. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
- D. Serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL. Erythropoietin therapy stimulates red blood cell production, leading to an increase in hemoglobin levels. A hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL indicates that the therapy is effective in managing anemia associated with chronic kidney disease. Choice B, a reticulocyte count of 1%, is not a direct indicator of the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Choice C, a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg, is important to monitor in clients with chronic kidney disease but does not specifically indicate the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Choice D, a serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL, is related to iron stores in the body and may be monitored during erythropoietin therapy but does not directly reflect the therapy's effectiveness in increasing red blood cell production.
2. A client with a history of alcohol abuse is admitted with acute pancreatitis. Which laboratory result requires immediate intervention?
- A. Amylase of 120 U/L.
- B. Lipase of 150 U/L.
- C. Calcium of 8.5 mg/dL.
- D. Blood glucose of 250 mg/dL.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Blood glucose of 250 mg/dL.' In a client with acute pancreatitis, elevated blood glucose levels can indicate poor control of diabetes or stress response from the acute illness. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent complications like worsening pancreatitis, infections, or other metabolic issues. Choices A and B, 'Amylase of 120 U/L' and 'Lipase of 150 U/L,' are commonly elevated in pancreatitis but do not require immediate intervention unless significantly elevated. Choice C, 'Calcium of 8.5 mg/dL,' is within the normal range and not a priority in this scenario.
3. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is admitted with unilateral leg swelling. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Elevate the affected leg on a pillow.
- B. Apply a warm compress to the affected leg.
- C. Perform passive range-of-motion exercises on the affected leg.
- D. Encourage the client to ambulate frequently.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and unilateral leg swelling is to elevate the affected leg on a pillow. Elevating the affected leg helps reduce swelling and pain by promoting venous return and preventing stasis of blood flow. Applying a warm compress (Choice B) may increase inflammation and worsen the condition. Performing passive range-of-motion exercises (Choice C) and encouraging ambulation (Choice D) can dislodge a clot and lead to potential embolism, making these choices contraindicated in a client with DVT.
4. The occupational health nurse is completing a yearly self-evaluation. Which activity should the nurse document as an example of proficient performance criteria in professionalism?
- A. contributes money to a professional society or organization
- B. maintains chairmanship of the hospital nursing council
- C. documents the nursing process in care management
- D. develops policy initiatives that impact occupational health and safety
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because developing policy initiatives that impact occupational health and safety demonstrates leadership and proficiency in contributing to the field. Choices A, B, and C do not directly relate to professionalism criteria in the context of occupational health nursing. Contributing money to a professional society, maintaining chairmanship of a nursing council, or documenting the nursing process, while important, do not specifically highlight the nurse's impact on occupational health and safety through policy development.
5. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with a blood pressure of 200/120 mm Hg. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?
- A. Metoprolol (Lopressor).
- B. Furosemide (Lasix).
- C. Lisinopril (Zestril).
- D. Nitroprusside (Nipride).
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Nitroprusside (Nipride). In this scenario of severe hypertension (200/120 mm Hg), a hypertensive emergency is present, requiring rapid reduction of blood pressure. Nitroprusside is a vasodilator that acts quickly to lower blood pressure in such emergencies. Options A, B, and C are incorrect: A) Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that lowers blood pressure but is not indicated for hypertensive emergencies requiring rapid reduction. B) Furosemide is a diuretic that helps with fluid retention but does not rapidly lower blood pressure. C) Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor used for long-term management of hypertension, not for immediate reduction in hypertensive emergencies.
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