Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL.
• B. Reticulocyte count of 1%.
• C. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
• D. Serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL. Erythropoietin therapy stimulates red blood cell production, leading to an increase in hemoglobin levels. A hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL indicates that the therapy is effective in managing anemia associated with chronic kidney disease. Choice B, a reticulocyte count of 1%, is not a direct indicator of the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Choice C, a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg, is important to monitor in clients with chronic kidney disease but does not specifically indicate the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Choice D, a serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL, is related to iron stores in the body and may be monitored during erythropoietin therapy but does not directly reflect the therapy's effectiveness in increasing red blood cell production.

2. A client with a head injury is admitted to the hospital. Which finding indicates a need for immediate intervention?

• A. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 15.
• B. Pupils are equal and reactive to light.
• C. Client is drowsy but arousable.
• D. Client does not remember the events leading to the injury.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with a head injury, being drowsy but still arousable can be a sign of increased intracranial pressure, which necessitates immediate intervention. This presentation may indicate a deterioration in neurological status, requiring prompt assessment and management to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are not indicative of an immediate need for intervention in this scenario. A Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 15 indicates the highest level of consciousness; pupils being equal and reactive to light suggest intact cranial nerve function, and memory loss about the injury event is common in head injuries and does not necessarily warrant immediate intervention.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 88%.
• B. Use of accessory muscles for breathing.
• C. Respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute.
• D. Barrel-shaped chest.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute is an abnormal finding and indicates that the client is experiencing respiratory distress, requiring immediate intervention. This rapid respiratory rate can signify inadequate oxygenation and ventilation. Oxygen saturation of 88% is low but not as immediately concerning as a high respiratory rate, which indicates the body is compensating for respiratory distress. The use of accessory muscles for breathing and a barrel-shaped chest are typical findings in clients with COPD but do not indicate an immediate need for intervention as they are more chronic in nature and may be seen in stable COPD patients.

4. A public health nurse is planning an educational campaign to reduce the incidence of hypertension in the community. Which group should be the primary target of this campaign?

• A. adolescents
• B. young adults
• C. middle-aged adults
• D. older adults

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, middle-aged adults. Middle-aged adults are at a higher risk for developing hypertension due to lifestyle factors and aging. Targeting this group for preventive measures such as dietary changes, exercise, and stress management can have a significant impact on reducing the incidence of hypertension. Choices A, B, and D are less appropriate targets as adolescents generally have lower rates of hypertension, young adults are less likely to be affected by hypertension at this stage, and older adults may already have established hypertension or comorbidities that could make prevention more challenging.

5. During a follow-up visit, a client with hypertension reports that they often forget to take their medication. What should the nurse do first?

• A. educate the client on the importance of medication adherence
• B. explore the reasons for the client's forgetfulness
• C. provide the client with a pill organizer
• D. adjust the client's medication schedule

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse is to explore the reasons for the client's forgetfulness. By understanding the underlying causes, the nurse can provide tailored interventions to help the client improve medication adherence. Providing education on the importance of adherence (Choice A) may be necessary but should come after identifying the reasons for forgetfulness. Simply providing a pill organizer (Choice C) or adjusting the medication schedule (Choice D) does not address the root cause of the forgetfulness and may not lead to sustained improvement in adherence.

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