Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL.
• B. Reticulocyte count of 1%.
• C. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
• D. Serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL. Erythropoietin therapy stimulates red blood cell production, leading to an increase in hemoglobin levels. A hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL indicates that the therapy is effective in managing anemia associated with chronic kidney disease. Choice B, a reticulocyte count of 1%, is not a direct indicator of the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Choice C, a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg, is important to monitor in clients with chronic kidney disease but does not specifically indicate the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Choice D, a serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL, is related to iron stores in the body and may be monitored during erythropoietin therapy but does not directly reflect the therapy's effectiveness in increasing red blood cell production.

2. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a chest tube. Which observation indicates that the chest tube is functioning effectively?

• A. Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber.
• B. Intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber.
• C. No fluctuation (tidaling) in the water-seal chamber.
• D. Drainage of clear, pale yellow fluid from the chest tube.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber is the correct observation indicating effective functioning of the chest tube. This bubbling signifies that the suction system is working correctly and maintaining the desired negative pressure in the pleural space. Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber suggests an air leak, which is not a normal finding. No fluctuation (tidaling) in the water-seal chamber may indicate a blockage or lack of communication between the pleural space and the water-seal, which is not ideal. Drainage of clear, pale yellow fluid from the chest tube is a normal finding, but it does not specifically indicate the effectiveness of the chest tube function.

3. Following a blizzard that resulted in millions of dollars of damage, the community health nurse is planning to seek financial assistance for families affected by the disaster. Which contact is most important for the nurse to make?

• A. the governor's disaster relief program
• B. Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA)
• C. local churches that can provide shelter
• D. the community to seek volunteer contributions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA). FEMA is the primary agency responsible for providing financial assistance and support during disasters. While the governor's disaster relief program may also offer help, FEMA has more extensive resources and expertise in disaster response. Local churches providing shelter and seeking volunteer contributions from the community are valuable resources but may not offer the comprehensive financial assistance that FEMA can provide in such situations.

4. The client with liver cirrhosis needs immediate intervention for which abnormal laboratory result?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) of 14 seconds.
• B. Bilirubin of 1.2 mg/dL.
• C. Albumin of 4 g/dL.
• D. Ammonia level of 80 mcg/dL.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An elevated ammonia level of 80 mcg/dL indicates hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication of liver cirrhosis that requires immediate intervention. Ammonia is a neurotoxin that accumulates in the blood due to impaired liver function, leading to cognitive impairment and altered mental status. Monitoring and lowering ammonia levels are crucial in managing hepatic encephalopathy to prevent further neurological deterioration. Prothrombin time, bilirubin, and albumin levels are important parameters in assessing liver function and overall health status in clients with liver cirrhosis, but an elevated ammonia level poses an immediate threat to neurological function and warrants prompt attention.

5. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted with severe dyspnea. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer oxygen at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula.
• B. Place the client in a high Fowler's position.
• C. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG).
• D. Administer intravenous furosemide (Lasix).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to place the client in a high Fowler's position first. This intervention helps improve breathing and oxygenation in clients with severe dyspnea, including those with heart failure. Elevating the head of the bed reduces the work of breathing and enhances lung expansion. Administering oxygen, obtaining an ECG, and administering furosemide are important interventions in the management of heart failure, but placing the client in a high Fowler's position is the priority to address the immediate need for improved breathing and oxygenation.

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