Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL.
• B. Reticulocyte count of 1%.
• C. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
• D. Serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL. Erythropoietin therapy stimulates red blood cell production, leading to an increase in hemoglobin levels. A hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL indicates that the therapy is effective in managing anemia associated with chronic kidney disease. Choice B, a reticulocyte count of 1%, is not a direct indicator of the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Choice C, a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg, is important to monitor in clients with chronic kidney disease but does not specifically indicate the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Choice D, a serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL, is related to iron stores in the body and may be monitored during erythropoietin therapy but does not directly reflect the therapy's effectiveness in increasing red blood cell production.

2. The nurse is assessing a client with a suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which finding supports this diagnosis?

• A. Positive Homan's sign.
• B. Unilateral leg swelling.
• C. Bilateral calf pain.
• D. Redness and warmth in the affected leg.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Redness and warmth in the affected leg. These are classic signs of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and support the diagnosis. Choice A, Positive Homan's sign, is an outdated and unreliable test for DVT, so it is not the best choice. Choice B, Unilateral leg swelling, can be seen in DVT but is less specific compared to redness and warmth. Choice C, Bilateral calf pain, is not a typical finding in DVT, as the pain in DVT is usually unilateral.

3. A public health nurse is planning an educational campaign to reduce the incidence of hypertension in the community. Which group should be the primary target of this campaign?

• A. adolescents
• B. young adults
• C. middle-aged adults
• D. older adults

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, middle-aged adults. Middle-aged adults are at a higher risk for developing hypertension due to lifestyle factors and aging. Targeting this group for preventive measures such as dietary changes, exercise, and stress management can have a significant impact on reducing the incidence of hypertension. Choices A, B, and D are less appropriate targets as adolescents generally have lower rates of hypertension, young adults are less likely to be affected by hypertension at this stage, and older adults may already have established hypertension or comorbidities that could make prevention more challenging.

4. An 80-year-old client is given morphine sulfate for postoperative pain. Which concomitant medication should the nurse question that poses a potential development of urinary retention in this geriatric client?

• A. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents.
• B. Antihistamines.
• C. Tricyclic antidepressants.
• D. Antibiotics.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tricyclic antidepressants. Drugs with anticholinergic properties, such as tricyclic antidepressants, can exacerbate urinary retention associated with opioids in older clients. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents (Choice A) do not typically cause urinary retention. Antihistamines (Choice B) may cause urinary retention but are not the primary concern in this scenario. Antibiotics (Choice D) are not associated with an increased risk of urinary retention compared to tricyclic antidepressants.

5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Which laboratory result indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. International normalized ratio (INR) of 1.0.
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds.
• C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 60 seconds.
• D. International normalized ratio (INR) of 2.5.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An International Normalized Ratio (INR) of 2.5 indicates that warfarin therapy is within the therapeutic range for a client with atrial fibrillation. A lower INR (such as 1.0) would suggest subtherapeutic levels, risking blood clots. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT) are not specific to monitoring warfarin therapy.

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