Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL.
• B. Reticulocyte count of 1%.
• C. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
• D. Serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL. Erythropoietin therapy stimulates red blood cell production, leading to an increase in hemoglobin levels. A hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL indicates that the therapy is effective in managing anemia associated with chronic kidney disease. Choice B, a reticulocyte count of 1%, is not a direct indicator of the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Choice C, a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg, is important to monitor in clients with chronic kidney disease but does not specifically indicate the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Choice D, a serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL, is related to iron stores in the body and may be monitored during erythropoietin therapy but does not directly reflect the therapy's effectiveness in increasing red blood cell production.

2. A female adult walks into a local community health clinic and tells the nurse that she is homeless and cannot seem to find help. Which statement indicates to the nurse that a client is feeling separated from society and helpless?

• A. "I'm feeling really isolated from everyone and scared."
• B. "I feel like I cannot get enough food to live any longer."
• C. "I know that I will always be poor so what's the use of trying?"
• D. "People like me are never respected, no matter how well we do."

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because the statement reflects a sense of isolation and helplessness, indicating a profound emotional and social disconnect. The client expresses feeling separated from others and scared, highlighting a deep emotional distress. Choices B, C, and D touch on different issues such as food insecurity, hopelessness about poverty, and lack of respect, but they do not specifically address the feelings of isolation and helplessness mentioned in the client's statement.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL.
• B. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours.
• C. Decreased urine output.
• D. Temperature of 100.3°F (37.9°C).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Decreased urine output in a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) requires immediate intervention because it can indicate potential complications such as fluid overload or kidney dysfunction. Monitoring urine output is crucial in assessing renal function and fluid balance in patients on TPN. A blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL is within a normal range and may not require immediate intervention. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours could be a concern but may not be as urgent as addressing decreased urine output. A temperature of 100.3°F (37.9°C) is slightly elevated but may not be directly related to TPN administration unless there are other symptoms of infection present.

4. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer atropine, an anticholinergic, to a client scheduled for a cholecystectomy. The client asks the provider to explain the reason for the prescribed medication. What response is best for the provider to provide?

• A. To increase gastric motility.
• B. To decrease the risk of bradycardia during surgery.
• C. To reduce secretions.
• D. To prevent nausea and vomiting.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Atropine, an anticholinergic medication, is used preoperatively to prevent bradycardia by increasing the automaticity of the sinoatrial node during surgical anesthesia. Choice A is incorrect because atropine does not affect gastric motility. Choice C is incorrect as atropine is not primarily used to reduce secretions. Choice D is also incorrect because preventing nausea and vomiting is not the primary purpose of administering atropine in this context.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 88%.
• B. Use of accessory muscles for breathing.
• C. Respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute.
• D. Barrel-shaped chest.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute is an abnormal finding and indicates that the client is experiencing respiratory distress, requiring immediate intervention. This rapid respiratory rate can signify inadequate oxygenation and ventilation. Oxygen saturation of 88% is low but not as immediately concerning as a high respiratory rate, which indicates the body is compensating for respiratory distress. The use of accessory muscles for breathing and a barrel-shaped chest are typical findings in clients with COPD but do not indicate an immediate need for intervention as they are more chronic in nature and may be seen in stable COPD patients.

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