Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is providing care for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum sodium of 140 mEq/L.
• B. Serum osmolality of 280 mOsm/kg.
• C. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours.
• D. Serum sodium of 130 mEq/L.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The corrected answer is D. A serum sodium level of 130 mEq/L indicates hyponatremia, which requires immediate intervention in a client with SIADH. Hyponatremia can lead to serious complications such as seizures, coma, and cerebral edema. Choices A, B, and C are not the most critical findings in a client with SIADH. While a serum sodium of 140 mEq/L is within the normal range, a decrease to 130 mEq/L is concerning and requires prompt action to prevent complications.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL.
• B. Reticulocyte count of 1%.
• C. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
• D. Serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL. Erythropoietin therapy stimulates red blood cell production, leading to an increase in hemoglobin levels. A hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL indicates that the therapy is effective in managing anemia associated with chronic kidney disease. Choice B, a reticulocyte count of 1%, is not a direct indicator of the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Choice C, a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg, is important to monitor in clients with chronic kidney disease but does not specifically indicate the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Choice D, a serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL, is related to iron stores in the body and may be monitored during erythropoietin therapy but does not directly reflect the therapy's effectiveness in increasing red blood cell production.

3. During a home visit, the nurse observes that a client with limited mobility has difficulty preparing meals. What should the nurse do first?

• A. suggest that the client use a meal delivery service
• B. assist the client in meal planning
• C. refer the client to a dietitian
• D. educate the client on easy-to-prepare healthy meals

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assisting the client in meal planning is the most appropriate initial action as it addresses the immediate issue of meal preparation. By helping the client plan meals according to their dietary needs and limitations, the nurse can support the client in maintaining a healthy diet despite limited mobility. While suggesting a meal delivery service (Choice A) may be a viable option, assisting in meal planning allows for more personalized and sustainable solutions. Referring the client to a dietitian (Choice C) may be necessary for specialized nutritional advice but is not the first step in addressing the immediate concern. Educating the client on easy-to-prepare healthy meals (Choice D) could be beneficial, but meal planning is a more comprehensive approach to ensure the client's dietary needs are met consistently.

4. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a chest tube. Which observation indicates that the chest tube is functioning properly?

• A. Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber.
• B. No fluctuation (tidaling) in the water-seal chamber.
• C. Intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber.
• D. Drainage of clear, pale yellow fluid from the chest tube.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The drainage of clear, pale yellow fluid from the chest tube is an indication of proper chest tube functioning. Clear, pale yellow fluid signifies normal drainage from the pleural space without any signs of infection or complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber, no fluctuation in the water-seal chamber, and intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber are all indications of potential issues or malfunctioning of the chest tube system, which would require further assessment and intervention.

5. The nurse is developing a series of childbirth preparation classes for primigravida women and their significant others. What is the priority expected outcome for these classes?

• A. Participants can identify at least three coping strategies to use during labor.
• B. Participants can list signs of labor and when to come to the hospital.
• C. Participants can describe three pain relief measures to use during labor.
• D. Participants can perform three relaxation techniques to use during labor.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority expected outcome for childbirth preparation classes is for participants to be able to identify coping strategies to use during labor. This is crucial as coping strategies can help women manage pain, stress, and anxiety during childbirth. Choice B is important but does not focus on coping strategies needed during labor. Choice C is relevant but focuses solely on pain relief measures which are a part of coping strategies. Choice D is also relevant but does not encompass all aspects of coping with labor effectively.

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