Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is providing care for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum sodium of 140 mEq/L.
• B. Serum osmolality of 280 mOsm/kg.
• C. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours.
• D. Serum sodium of 130 mEq/L.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The corrected answer is D. A serum sodium level of 130 mEq/L indicates hyponatremia, which requires immediate intervention in a client with SIADH. Hyponatremia can lead to serious complications such as seizures, coma, and cerebral edema. Choices A, B, and C are not the most critical findings in a client with SIADH. While a serum sodium of 140 mEq/L is within the normal range, a decrease to 130 mEq/L is concerning and requires prompt action to prevent complications.

2. The healthcare professional is preparing a presentation on the impact of substance abuse on families. Which approach is most effective for engaging the audience?

• A. showing statistical data on substance abuse rates
• B. sharing personal stories from individuals affected by substance abuse
• C. distributing informational brochures on substance abuse
• D. providing a list of local substance abuse treatment centers

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Sharing personal stories from individuals affected by substance abuse is the most effective approach for engaging the audience. Personal stories evoke emotions, create empathy, and make the impact of substance abuse more relatable and tangible for the audience. This approach helps in fostering a deeper understanding of the real-life consequences of substance abuse on families. The other options, such as showing statistical data (choice A), distributing informational brochures (choice C), and providing a list of treatment centers (choice D), may be informative but may not engage the audience on an emotional level as effectively as personal stories.

3. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with a blood pressure of 180/110 mm Hg. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Atenolol (Tenormin)
• B. Nifedipine (Procardia)
• C. Hydrochlorothiazide (Microzide)
• D. Clonidine (Catapres)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario of severe hypertension (180/110 mm Hg), the nurse should prepare to administer Clonidine (Catapres), which is an antihypertensive medication commonly used to rapidly lower blood pressure in acute situations. Atenolol and Nifedipine are also antihypertensive medications, but Clonidine is more appropriate for immediate blood pressure reduction in this critical situation. Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic often used for long-term management of hypertension, not for rapid lowering of severely elevated blood pressure.

4. The client with liver cirrhosis needs immediate intervention for which abnormal laboratory result?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) of 14 seconds.
• B. Bilirubin of 1.2 mg/dL.
• C. Albumin of 4 g/dL.
• D. Ammonia level of 80 mcg/dL.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An elevated ammonia level of 80 mcg/dL indicates hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication of liver cirrhosis that requires immediate intervention. Ammonia is a neurotoxin that accumulates in the blood due to impaired liver function, leading to cognitive impairment and altered mental status. Monitoring and lowering ammonia levels are crucial in managing hepatic encephalopathy to prevent further neurological deterioration. Prothrombin time, bilirubin, and albumin levels are important parameters in assessing liver function and overall health status in clients with liver cirrhosis, but an elevated ammonia level poses an immediate threat to neurological function and warrants prompt attention.

5. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer atropine, an anticholinergic, to a client scheduled for a cholecystectomy. The client asks the provider to explain the reason for the prescribed medication. What response is best for the provider to provide?

• A. To increase gastric motility.
• B. To decrease the risk of bradycardia during surgery.
• C. To reduce secretions.
• D. To prevent nausea and vomiting.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Atropine, an anticholinergic medication, is used preoperatively to prevent bradycardia by increasing the automaticity of the sinoatrial node during surgical anesthesia. Choice A is incorrect because atropine does not affect gastric motility. Choice C is incorrect as atropine is not primarily used to reduce secretions. Choice D is also incorrect because preventing nausea and vomiting is not the primary purpose of administering atropine in this context.

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