Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is preparing a presentation on sexually transmitted infections (STIs) for a group of high school students. Which strategy is most effective for this age group?

• A. providing detailed statistical data on STI rates
• B. distributing brochures about STI prevention
• C. showing a documentary on the impact of STIs
• D. facilitating a discussion on safe sex practices

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Facilitating a discussion on safe sex practices is the most effective strategy for high school students when educating about sexually transmitted infections (STIs). This approach encourages active participation, allows students to ask questions, share experiences, and engage with the topic in a meaningful way. Providing detailed statistical data may overwhelm the students and not resonate with them effectively. Distributing brochures can be informative but might not promote the same level of interaction and understanding as a discussion. Showing a documentary is a passive method that may not engage the students actively or address their specific questions and concerns.

2. When examining sources for funding, which criteria should the nurse clarify about the program for the community group?

• A. a prescription from the healthcare provider for each visit made
• B. documentation of a skilled care service provided during the visit
• C. a copy of the client's health history and social security card
• D. a record of the preventive healthcare services provided during the visit

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because when seeking funding sources for a community outreach program, it is essential to clarify aspects related to the client's personal information, such as health history and identification details. This information helps in demonstrating the need for the program and understanding the target population. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they focus on clinical documentation, services provided during visits, and preventive healthcare services, which are not directly related to clarifying funding criteria about the program.

3. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed enalapril (Vasotec). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will monitor my blood pressure regularly.
• B. I will report any signs of infection to my healthcare provider.
• C. I will avoid using salt substitutes.
• D. I will increase my intake of potassium-rich foods.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Increasing potassium intake can lead to hyperkalemia, especially in clients taking ACE inhibitors like enalapril. Hyperkalemia is a potential side effect of ACE inhibitors and can be exacerbated by consuming potassium-rich foods. Monitoring blood pressure regularly (A) is important when taking antihypertensive medications. Reporting signs of infection (B) is crucial as ACE inhibitors can lower the immune response. Avoiding salt substitutes (C) is necessary because they may contain potassium chloride, leading to increased potassium levels, which can be harmful in combination with ACE inhibitors.

4. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with hyperparathyroidism. Which laboratory result requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum calcium of 11 mg/dL.
• B. Serum phosphorus of 3 mg/dL.
• C. Serum magnesium of 1.8 mg/dL.
• D. Serum albumin of 4 g/dL.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A serum calcium level of 11 mg/dL indicates hypercalcemia, which can be a complication of hyperparathyroidism and requires immediate intervention. Hypercalcemia can lead to serious complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias, renal failure, and neurologic symptoms. Monitoring and managing serum calcium levels are crucial in clients with hyperparathyroidism. Serum phosphorus, magnesium, and albumin levels are important to assess in clients with hyperparathyroidism, but they do not require immediate intervention as hypercalcemia poses a more urgent risk.

5. A client with a history of diabetes mellitus is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL.
• B. Serum bicarbonate of 20 mEq/L.
• C. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg.
• D. Urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours indicates oliguria, which is a concerning sign of decreased renal perfusion and potential renal failure. This finding requires immediate intervention to prevent further deterioration of kidney function.\n\nChoice A (Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL) is elevated but not the most urgent concern in this scenario. Choice B (Serum bicarbonate of 20 mEq/L) reflects metabolic acidosis, which is expected in DKA but does not require immediate intervention. Choice C (Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg) is slightly elevated but not acutely concerning in the context of DKA.

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