a 56 year old female client is receiving intracavitary radiation via a radium implant which nurse should be assigned to care for this client
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Community Health HESI 2023

1. A 56-year-old female client is receiving intracavitary radiation via a radium implant. Which nurse should be assigned to care for this client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A nurse with Marfan syndrome who is postmenopausal can safely care for the client because Marfan syndrome does not affect the ability to care for this client, and postmenopausal status minimizes the risk of radiation exposure affecting reproductive health. Choice A is incorrect because pregnancy increases the risk of radiation exposure to the fetus. Choice C is incorrect because a nurse with a cold may have a compromised immune system and should not be exposed to radiation therapy. Choice D is incorrect because lactation can increase the risk of radiation exposure to breast tissue.

2. The client is receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because participating in contact sports can increase the risk of injury and bleeding in a client receiving warfarin therapy. Warfarin is a blood thinner, and activities with a higher risk of injury should be avoided to prevent bleeding complications. Choices A, B, and C are all correct statements for a client on warfarin therapy. Avoiding foods high in vitamin K helps maintain consistent anticoagulation levels, using a soft toothbrush and an electric razor reduces the risk of bleeding gums and cuts, and keeping appointments for blood tests ensures proper monitoring of the client's international normalized ratio (INR) levels.

3. A client is receiving atenolol (Tenormin) 25 mg PO after a myocardial infarction. The nurse determines the client's apical pulse is 65 beats per minute. What action should the nurse take next?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to administer the medication. Atenolol is a beta-blocker commonly used post-myocardial infarction to reduce the workload of the heart. The client's apical pulse of 65 beats per minute is within the acceptable range after a myocardial infarction. Holding the medication or calling the healthcare provider is not necessary in this scenario as the pulse rate is appropriate for administering atenolol. Checking the blood pressure is not the priority in this situation, as the focus should be on the heart rate when administering atenolol.

4. The healthcare provider is inspecting the external eye structures of a client. Which finding is a normal racial variation?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The slightly yellow color of the sclera is a normal racial variation found in the African-American population. Blue sclerae (Choice A) are associated with osteogenesis imperfecta, not a normal racial variation. Brown macules on the sclerae (Choice B) may indicate issues like melanoma or melanosis but are not a normal racial variation. Conjunctival pallor (Choice D) suggests anemia or decreased blood flow but is not a normal racial variation.

5. A primipara with a breech presentation is in the transition phase of labor. The nurse visualizes the perineum and sees the umbilical cord extruding from the introitus. In which position should the nurse place the client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario of a primipara with a breech presentation and a prolapsed umbilical cord, the nurse should place the client in the supine position with the foot of the bed raised (Trendelenburg position). This position helps alleviate gravitational pressure by the fetus on the cord, preventing compression and reducing the risk of cord prolapse complications. Placing the client on the left or right side with legs elevated or in a prone position with the head elevated would not be appropriate in this situation, as they do not effectively relieve the pressure on the umbilical cord.

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