Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 88%.
• B. Use of accessory muscles for breathing.
• C. Respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute.
• D. Barrel-shaped chest.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute is an abnormal finding and indicates that the client is experiencing respiratory distress, requiring immediate intervention. This rapid respiratory rate can signify inadequate oxygenation and ventilation. Oxygen saturation of 88% is low but not as immediately concerning as a high respiratory rate, which indicates the body is compensating for respiratory distress. The use of accessory muscles for breathing and a barrel-shaped chest are typical findings in clients with COPD but do not indicate an immediate need for intervention as they are more chronic in nature and may be seen in stable COPD patients.

2. A nurse is planning a community event to raise awareness about mental health. Which activity should be included to best engage participants?

• A. lectures by mental health professionals
• B. interactive workshops on stress management
• C. distribution of mental health resources
• D. screenings for depression and anxiety

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Interactive workshops on stress management should be included to best engage participants in a community event about mental health. Unlike lectures by mental health professionals, workshops actively involve participants, allowing for interaction and practical skill-building. While distributing mental health resources and providing screenings for depression and anxiety are important components, interactive workshops offer a more engaging and hands-on approach, empowering individuals with skills they can use to manage their mental health effectively.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a new arteriovenous fistula in the left arm for hemodialysis. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. A thrill is palpable on the fistula.
• B. The client's arm is warm and red.
• C. The fistula has a bruit on auscultation.
• D. There is no bruit on auscultation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Warmth and redness in the client's arm suggest infection or thrombosis of the arteriovenous fistula, which requires immediate intervention to prevent complications. A thrill (A) is a normal finding in a functional arteriovenous fistula, indicating good blood flow. A bruit (C) is also a normal finding on auscultation of a functioning arteriovenous fistula, indicating proper blood flow. The absence of a bruit (D) may indicate a non-functioning fistula, which would need further evaluation but does not require immediate intervention as warmth and redness do.

4. After assessing the health care needs of an elementary school, the nurse determines that an increased prevalence of pediculosis capitis is a priority problem. The nurse develops a 2-month program with the goal to eradicate the condition in the school. The program includes educational pamphlets sent home to parents and regular assessment of children by the school nurse. What action should the nurse implement to evaluate the effectiveness of the program?

• A. evaluate the teachers' ability to identify pediculosis capitis 2 months after initiation of the program
• B. conduct an initial examination of each child in the school to obtain baseline data
• C. survey parents 3 weeks after pamphlets are sent home to assess their understanding of the condition
• D. measure the prevalence of pediculosis capitis among the children after four months

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Measuring the prevalence of pediculosis capitis among the children after four months is the most appropriate action to evaluate the program's effectiveness. This approach provides data on the program's long-term impact and effectiveness in eradicating the condition. Option A focuses on the teachers' ability, which is not directly related to the program's effectiveness in eradicating the condition. Option B suggests conducting an initial examination, which does not provide information on the program's impact. Option C involves assessing parents' understanding, which is important but does not directly evaluate the program's effectiveness in eradicating pediculosis capitis.

5. The community health nurse believes that immunization rates in a lower socioeconomic section of the city are probably below the target set by the state health department. What action should the nurse take first to intervene with this health problem?

• A. join a political action group that focuses attention on the issue in the local news media
• B. partner with a local children's hospital in setting up free 'shot' clinics in the neighborhood
• C. review current epidemiological population data that might document a low immunization rate
• D. call a meeting of citizens to inform them of the importance of having their children immunized

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate initial action for the community health nurse to take when addressing low immunization rates in a lower socioeconomic area is to review current epidemiological data. By reviewing this data, the nurse can gather evidence that documents the low immunization rate in the community. This information is crucial to support the need for targeted interventions to increase immunization rates. Choices A, B, and D involve actions that may be important at later stages of intervention but are not the first step. Joining a political action group, partnering with a hospital for clinics, or holding a community meeting are all valuable strategies, but they should be based on evidence obtained from reviewing epidemiological data to ensure targeted and effective interventions.

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