Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 88%.
• B. Use of accessory muscles for breathing.
• C. Respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute.
• D. Barrel-shaped chest.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute is an abnormal finding and indicates that the client is experiencing respiratory distress, requiring immediate intervention. This rapid respiratory rate can signify inadequate oxygenation and ventilation. Oxygen saturation of 88% is low but not as immediately concerning as a high respiratory rate, which indicates the body is compensating for respiratory distress. The use of accessory muscles for breathing and a barrel-shaped chest are typical findings in clients with COPD but do not indicate an immediate need for intervention as they are more chronic in nature and may be seen in stable COPD patients.

2. A male client who had abdominal surgery has a nasogastric tube for suction, oxygen via nasal cannula, and complains of dry mouth. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Apply a petroleum-based lubricant to the lips.
• B. Give sips of water.
• C. Provide ice chips.
• D. Apply a water-soluble lubricant to the lips, oral mucosa, and nares.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct action is to apply a water-soluble lubricant to the lips, oral mucosa, and nares. This helps in keeping the mucous membranes moist, which is essential for a client with a dry mouth due to the nasogastric tube and oxygen therapy. Choice A, applying a petroleum-based lubricant to the lips, is not suitable as it may not be safe for internal use. Choice B, giving sips of water, is contraindicated as the client has a nasogastric tube in place for suction. Choice C, providing ice chips, is also not recommended as the client needs proper lubrication to address dryness, not cold stimulation.

3. A first-grade boy is sent to the school nurse after he fainted while playing tag during recess. When he arrives in the clinic he is alert and oriented and his vital signs include temperature of 97.8°F, pulse 96 bpm, respirations 15 breaths/minute, and blood pressure 80/56 mmHg. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. request transport of the child to his pediatrician's office
• B. call the child's parents and send him home for the day
• C. compare the child's body mass index to normal values
• D. measure the child's pulse and blood pressure every 15 minutes

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the most important intervention for the nurse to implement is to measure the child's pulse and blood pressure every 15 minutes. The child experienced a syncopal episode (fainting) which could be due to various reasons, including dehydration or cardiac issues. Monitoring vital signs frequently will help detect any changes that may indicate underlying health issues. Requesting transport to the pediatrician's office or sending the child home without continuous monitoring may not provide immediate assessment and intervention. Comparing the child's body mass index to normal values is not relevant in addressing the immediate concern of monitoring vital signs after a syncopal episode.

4. A public health nurse is evaluating a program designed to reduce the incidence of sexually transmitted infections (STIs) among teenagers. Which outcome indicates that the program is successful?

• A. increased attendance at educational sessions on STIs
• B. higher rates of condom use among teenagers
• C. more teenagers seeking testing for STIs
• D. greater knowledge of STI prevention methods

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: higher rates of condom use among teenagers. This outcome indicates that the teenagers are adopting safer sexual practices, which can effectively reduce the incidence of STIs. Increased attendance at educational sessions (Choice A) may show interest but does not directly reflect behavior change. More teenagers seeking testing for STIs (Choice C) indicates awareness but not necessarily prevention. Greater knowledge of STI prevention methods (Choice D) is valuable but does not guarantee behavioral change like increased condom use.

5. The nurse is assessing an older adult client and determines that the client's left upper eyelid droops, covering more of the iris than the right eyelid. Which description should the nurse use to document this finding?

• A. Ptosis on the left eyelid.
• B. Nystagmus.
• C. Astigmatism.
• D. Exophthalmos.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Ptosis on the left eyelid.' Ptosis is the term used to describe an eyelid droop that covers a large portion of the iris, which may be caused by issues with the oculomotor nerve or eyelid muscles. Choice B, 'Nystagmus,' refers to involuntary eye movements and is not related to eyelid drooping. Choice C, 'Astigmatism,' is a refractive error affecting vision due to an irregularly shaped cornea or lens, not an eyelid condition. Choice D, 'Exophthalmos,' is a protrusion of the eyeball associated with conditions like hyperthyroidism, not eyelid drooping.

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