Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 88%.
• B. Use of accessory muscles for breathing.
• C. Respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute.
• D. Barrel-shaped chest.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute is an abnormal finding and indicates that the client is experiencing respiratory distress, requiring immediate intervention. This rapid respiratory rate can signify inadequate oxygenation and ventilation. Oxygen saturation of 88% is low but not as immediately concerning as a high respiratory rate, which indicates the body is compensating for respiratory distress. The use of accessory muscles for breathing and a barrel-shaped chest are typical findings in clients with COPD but do not indicate an immediate need for intervention as they are more chronic in nature and may be seen in stable COPD patients.

2. The school nurse who is reviewing immunization records of students who will start kindergarten within the next month notes that most of the students have only received one dose of the measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) vaccine. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Note in the student records that the second dose of the MMR vaccine should be administered prior to entering first grade
• B. Send notices home with the children on the first day of class advising that MMR vaccine series must be completed
• C. Contact kindergarten parents to remind them that the second dose of MMR is due at the start of the school year
• D. Speak at the next parent-teacher association meeting to teach parents the benefits of immunizing their children

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for the school nurse is to contact kindergarten parents to remind them that the second dose of the MMR vaccine is due at the start of the school year. This approach directly addresses the issue of incomplete vaccination coverage and ensures that children receive the complete vaccination on time. Choice A is incorrect as it only notes the need for the second dose without actively engaging parents. Choice B is not as effective as directly contacting parents and may lead to delays in completing the vaccination series. Choice D, while promoting immunization, does not directly address the current situation of incomplete MMR vaccination among the kindergarten students.

3. The healthcare provider is planning a health education session for new parents on infant care. Which topic should be prioritized?

• A. signs of infant dehydration
• B. proper diaper changing techniques
• C. immunization schedule
• D. breastfeeding positions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Recognizing signs of infant dehydration is crucial for ensuring the health and well-being of infants. Dehydration can be life-threatening for infants if not addressed promptly. Proper diaper changing techniques, while important for hygiene, can be learned incrementally. The immunization schedule and breastfeeding positions are also essential topics, but identifying signs of dehydration takes precedence as it requires immediate attention to prevent serious complications.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a nasogastric tube to low intermittent suction. Which finding indicates that the client may have developed hypokalemia?

• A. Muscle weakness and cramps.
• B. Nausea and vomiting.
• C. Constipation.
• D. Increased blood pressure.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Muscle weakness and cramps are characteristic signs of hypokalemia, a condition marked by low levels of potassium in the blood. Potassium is essential for proper muscle function, and its deficiency can lead to muscle weakness and cramps. In the context of a client with a nasogastric tube to low intermittent suction, the loss of potassium through suctioning can contribute to the development of hypokalemia. Nausea and vomiting (choice B) are more commonly associated with gastrointestinal issues rather than hypokalemia. Constipation (choice C) is not a typical finding of hypokalemia; instead, it can be a sign of other gastrointestinal problems. Increased blood pressure (choice D) is not a direct manifestation of hypokalemia; in fact, low potassium levels are more commonly associated with decreased blood pressure.

5. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease is admitted with severe epigastric pain. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Nausea and vomiting.
• B. Hematemesis.
• C. Melena.
• D. Rebound tenderness.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with a history of peptic ulcer disease presenting with severe epigastric pain, the finding that requires immediate intervention is rebound tenderness. Rebound tenderness can indicate peritonitis, a serious condition that necessitates immediate medical attention. Nausea and vomiting, hematemesis, and melena are also concerning symptoms in a client with a history of peptic ulcer disease, but they do not signify the urgency of intervention as rebound tenderness does.

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