the nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease copd which finding requires immediate intervention
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Nursing Elites

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Community Health HESI

1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute is an abnormal finding and indicates that the client is experiencing respiratory distress, requiring immediate intervention. This rapid respiratory rate can signify inadequate oxygenation and ventilation. Oxygen saturation of 88% is low but not as immediately concerning as a high respiratory rate, which indicates the body is compensating for respiratory distress. The use of accessory muscles for breathing and a barrel-shaped chest are typical findings in clients with COPD but do not indicate an immediate need for intervention as they are more chronic in nature and may be seen in stable COPD patients.

2. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a new arteriovenous fistula in the left arm for hemodialysis. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Warmth and redness in the client's arm suggest infection or thrombosis of the arteriovenous fistula, which requires immediate intervention to prevent complications. A thrill (A) is a normal finding in a functional arteriovenous fistula, indicating good blood flow. A bruit (C) is also a normal finding on auscultation of a functioning arteriovenous fistula, indicating proper blood flow. The absence of a bruit (D) may indicate a non-functioning fistula, which would need further evaluation but does not require immediate intervention as warmth and redness do.

3. A community health nurse is conducting a program evaluation for a diabetes management class. Which measure best indicates the program's effectiveness?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most effective measure to indicate the program's effectiveness in a diabetes management class is the reduction in participants' average blood glucose levels. This measure directly reflects the impact of the program on managing diabetes and improving health outcomes. Choices A and B may provide valuable information but do not directly assess the program's impact on managing diabetes. Choice D, improvement in participants' knowledge about diabetes, is important but may not directly translate into improved diabetes management without actual health outcome measurements like blood glucose levels.

4. Which bioterrorism agent is at high risk for use as a potential biological weapon that is readily transmitted by several portals of entry?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Anthrax is the correct answer. Anthrax spores can be transmitted through inhalation, ingestion, or skin contact, making it a high-risk agent for bioterrorism. Smallpox, botulism, and tularemia are also potential bioterrorism agents, but they do not have the same versatility in terms of multiple portals of entry, unlike anthrax.

5. The client with liver cirrhosis needs immediate intervention for which abnormal laboratory result?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An elevated ammonia level of 80 mcg/dL indicates hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication of liver cirrhosis that requires immediate intervention. Ammonia is a neurotoxin that accumulates in the blood due to impaired liver function, leading to cognitive impairment and altered mental status. Monitoring and lowering ammonia levels are crucial in managing hepatic encephalopathy to prevent further neurological deterioration. Prothrombin time, bilirubin, and albumin levels are important parameters in assessing liver function and overall health status in clients with liver cirrhosis, but an elevated ammonia level poses an immediate threat to neurological function and warrants prompt attention.

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