Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 88%.
• B. Use of accessory muscles for breathing.
• C. Respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute.
• D. Barrel-shaped chest.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute is an abnormal finding and indicates that the client is experiencing respiratory distress, requiring immediate intervention. This rapid respiratory rate can signify inadequate oxygenation and ventilation. Oxygen saturation of 88% is low but not as immediately concerning as a high respiratory rate, which indicates the body is compensating for respiratory distress. The use of accessory muscles for breathing and a barrel-shaped chest are typical findings in clients with COPD but do not indicate an immediate need for intervention as they are more chronic in nature and may be seen in stable COPD patients.

2. A community health nurse is conducting a neighborhood discussion group about disaster planning. What information regarding transmission of anthrax should the nurse provide to the group?

• A. Infection is acquired when anthrax spores enter a host.
• B. Mature anthrax bacteria live dormant on inanimate objects.
• C. Spores cannot survive for extended periods outside a living host.
• D. Anthrax is transmitted by respiratory droplets from person to person.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Infection is acquired when anthrax spores enter a host. Anthrax is primarily transmitted through spores entering the body, either through the skin, inhalation, or ingestion. Person-to-person transmission of anthrax is extremely rare and not a significant mode of transmission. Choices B and C are incorrect because mature anthrax bacteria do not live dormant on inanimate objects, and spores can survive for extended periods outside a living host. Choice D is incorrect as anthrax is not transmitted by respiratory droplets from person to person.

3. The healthcare professional is developing a teaching plan for an adolescent with a Milwaukee brace. Which instruction should the healthcare professional include?

• A. Wear the brace over a T-shirt for 23 hours a day.
• B. Remove the brace while sleeping.
• C. Wear the brace directly against the skin.
• D. Remove the brace while eating.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A Milwaukee brace should be worn over a T-shirt for 23 hours a day to reduce friction and chafing of the skin. This ensures that the brace is not directly against the skin, which can cause discomfort and skin irritation. Choice B is incorrect because the brace should typically be worn continuously, even while sleeping, unless otherwise instructed by a healthcare provider. Choice C is incorrect as wearing the brace directly against the skin can lead to skin issues. Choice D is incorrect since the brace should not be removed while eating to maintain the prescribed wear time.

4. The nurse is providing care for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which laboratory result requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum sodium of 140 mEq/L.
• B. Serum potassium of 4.5 mEq/L.
• C. Serum osmolality of 280 mOsm/kg.
• D. Serum sodium of 130 mEq/L.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Serum sodium of 130 mEq/L. In SIADH, there is excess release of antidiuretic hormone leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. A serum sodium level of 130 mEq/L indicates severe hyponatremia, which can result in neurological symptoms, such as confusion, seizures, and coma. Therefore, immediate intervention is required to prevent further complications. Choice A, a serum sodium of 140 mEq/L, is within the normal range and does not require immediate intervention. Choice B, serum potassium of 4.5 mEq/L, is also within the normal range and is not directly related to SIADH. Choice C, serum osmolality of 280 mOsm/kg, is a measure of the concentration of solutes in the blood and may not be the most critical parameter to address in a client with SIADH and severe hyponatremia.

5. After coronary artery bypass graft surgery, a male client is admitted to the coronary care unit. Which nursing diagnosis is of the highest priority?

• A. Ineffective breathing pattern.
• B. Impaired gas exchange.
• C. Acute pain.
• D. Risk for infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Impaired gas exchange is the highest priority nursing diagnosis because it directly impacts the client's oxygenation. Following coronary artery bypass graft surgery, ensuring adequate oxygen exchange is crucial for the client's recovery. Ineffective breathing pattern, although important, may not be as critical as impaired gas exchange in the immediate postoperative period. Acute pain, while significant, can be managed effectively with appropriate interventions and is not as emergent as addressing impaired gas exchange. Risk for infection is also a valid concern post-surgery, but ensuring optimal gas exchange takes precedence to prevent complications associated with inadequate oxygenation.

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