Nursing Elites

1. A homeless client with alcohol dependency will be dismissed from the emergency department in 24 hours. The nurse notes that a tuberculin skin test was prescribed by the healthcare provider. What intervention is most important for the nurse to implement prior to discharge?

• A. Identify how the client will follow-up to have the results read
• B. Give the client written information about the tuberculosis test
• C. Determine if the client understands the purpose of the tuberculin test
• D. Explain to the client results should be read between 48 and 72 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important intervention for the nurse to implement prior to the discharge of a homeless client with alcohol dependency who had a tuberculin skin test prescribed is to identify how the client will follow-up to have the results read. This is crucial to ensure proper diagnosis and treatment. Providing written information (Choice B) is helpful but not as critical as ensuring the follow-up plan. Determining if the client understands the purpose of the test (Choice C) is important but not as immediate as ensuring the follow-up plan. Explaining when the results should be read (Choice D) is important, but the priority is to make sure the client has a plan in place for follow-up.

2. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with a blood pressure of 180/110 mm Hg. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Atenolol (Tenormin)
• B. Nifedipine (Procardia)
• C. Hydrochlorothiazide (Microzide)
• D. Clonidine (Catapres)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario of severe hypertension (180/110 mm Hg), the nurse should prepare to administer Clonidine (Catapres), which is an antihypertensive medication commonly used to rapidly lower blood pressure in acute situations. Atenolol and Nifedipine are also antihypertensive medications, but Clonidine is more appropriate for immediate blood pressure reduction in this critical situation. Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic often used for long-term management of hypertension, not for rapid lowering of severely elevated blood pressure.

3. A public health nurse is developing a campaign to promote breast cancer screening. Which population should be the primary target of this campaign?

• A. women aged 20-30
• B. women aged 30-40
• C. women aged 40-50
• D. women aged 50-60

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is women aged 40-50. This age group is at an increased risk for breast cancer and should be the primary target for screening campaigns. Women in this age range are more likely to benefit from regular screening as early detection can lead to better outcomes. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because women aged 20-30 are generally not recommended for routine screening due to their lower risk, women aged 30-40 have a moderate risk but are not the primary target group, and women aged 50-60 should still be screened but targeting the 40-50 age group is more crucial for early detection and intervention.

4. A 6-year-old child is alert but quiet when brought to the emergency center with periorbital ecchymosis and ecchymosis behind the ears. The nurse suspects potential child abuse and continues to assess the child for additional manifestations of a basilar skull fracture. What assessment finding would be consistent with the basilar skull fracture?

• A. Blurred vision.
• B. Shoulder pain.
• C. Abdominal pain.
• D. Rhinorrhea or otorrhea with halo sign.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Rhinorrhea or otorrhea with halo sign. Raccoon eyes (periorbital ecchymosis) and Battle's sign (ecchymosis behind the ear) are signs of a basilar skull fracture, indicating the need to assess for possible meningeal tears that manifest as a halo sign with cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage from the ears or nose. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because blurred vision, shoulder pain, and abdominal pain are not typically associated with a basilar skull fracture.

5. When caring for a client with a chest tube, which intervention is most important to include in the plan of care?

• A. Maintain continuous suction on the chest tube.
• B. Clamp the chest tube during client movement.
• C. Ensure that the chest tube is clamped for at least 8 hours each day.
• D. Keep the collection chamber below the level of the chest.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Keeping the collection chamber below the level of the chest is crucial in caring for a client with a chest tube. This positioning helps ensure proper drainage of fluids and prevents complications such as backflow of drainage into the chest cavity. Option A is incorrect as continuous suction can lead to excessive drainage and tissue damage. Option B is incorrect as clamping the chest tube during client movement can cause a buildup of pressure and compromise proper drainage. Option C is incorrect because clamping the chest tube for extended periods can impede the drainage process, leading to potential complications.

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