Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a chest tube. Which observation indicates that the chest tube is functioning effectively?

• A. Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber.
• B. Intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber.
• C. No fluctuation (tidaling) in the water-seal chamber.
• D. Drainage of clear, pale yellow fluid from the chest tube.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber is the correct observation indicating effective functioning of the chest tube. This bubbling signifies that the suction system is working correctly and maintaining the desired negative pressure in the pleural space. Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber suggests an air leak, which is not a normal finding. No fluctuation (tidaling) in the water-seal chamber may indicate a blockage or lack of communication between the pleural space and the water-seal, which is not ideal. Drainage of clear, pale yellow fluid from the chest tube is a normal finding, but it does not specifically indicate the effectiveness of the chest tube function.

2. A male client who had abdominal surgery has a nasogastric tube for suction, oxygen via nasal cannula, and complains of dry mouth. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Apply a petroleum-based lubricant to the lips.
• B. Give sips of water.
• C. Provide ice chips.
• D. Apply a water-soluble lubricant to the lips, oral mucosa, and nares.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct action is to apply a water-soluble lubricant to the lips, oral mucosa, and nares. This helps in keeping the mucous membranes moist, which is essential for a client with a dry mouth due to the nasogastric tube and oxygen therapy. Choice A, applying a petroleum-based lubricant to the lips, is not suitable as it may not be safe for internal use. Choice B, giving sips of water, is contraindicated as the client has a nasogastric tube in place for suction. Choice C, providing ice chips, is also not recommended as the client needs proper lubrication to address dryness, not cold stimulation.

3. The nurse is developing a series of childbirth preparation classes for primigravida women and their significant others. What is the priority expected outcome for these classes?

• A. Participants can identify at least three coping strategies to use during labor.
• B. Participants can list signs of labor and when to come to the hospital.
• C. Participants can describe three pain relief measures to use during labor.
• D. Participants can perform three relaxation techniques to use during labor.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority expected outcome for childbirth preparation classes is for participants to be able to identify coping strategies to use during labor. This is crucial as coping strategies can help women manage pain, stress, and anxiety during childbirth. Choice B is important but does not focus on coping strategies needed during labor. Choice C is relevant but focuses solely on pain relief measures which are a part of coping strategies. Choice D is also relevant but does not encompass all aspects of coping with labor effectively.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL.
• B. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours.
• C. Decreased urine output.
• D. Temperature of 100.3°F (37.9°C).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Decreased urine output in a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) requires immediate intervention because it can indicate potential complications such as fluid overload or kidney dysfunction. Monitoring urine output is crucial in assessing renal function and fluid balance in patients on TPN. A blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL is within a normal range and may not require immediate intervention. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours could be a concern but may not be as urgent as addressing decreased urine output. A temperature of 100.3°F (37.9°C) is slightly elevated but may not be directly related to TPN administration unless there are other symptoms of infection present.

5. The healthcare provider is planning a health education session for teenagers on the importance of physical activity. Which strategy is most likely to be effective?

• A. lecturing about the benefits of physical activity
• B. showing videos of athletes
• C. organizing interactive physical activities
• D. distributing pamphlets on physical fitness

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Organizing interactive physical activities is the most effective strategy for educating teenagers on the importance of physical activity. This approach engages the teenagers actively, making the learning experience more enjoyable and memorable. Lecturing (choice A) may not be as engaging for teenagers, potentially leading to disinterest. Showing videos of athletes (choice B) may capture attention momentarily but may not have a lasting impact on understanding the importance of physical activity. Distributing pamphlets (choice D) is a passive method that may not effectively convey the message or engage teenagers in a meaningful way.

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