Nursing Elites

1. A public health nurse is developing a campaign to promote breast cancer screening. Which population should be the primary target of this campaign?

• A. women aged 20-30
• B. women aged 30-40
• C. women aged 40-50
• D. women aged 50-60

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is women aged 40-50. This age group is at an increased risk for breast cancer and should be the primary target for screening campaigns. Women in this age range are more likely to benefit from regular screening as early detection can lead to better outcomes. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because women aged 20-30 are generally not recommended for routine screening due to their lower risk, women aged 30-40 have a moderate risk but are not the primary target group, and women aged 50-60 should still be screened but targeting the 40-50 age group is more crucial for early detection and intervention.

2. Which intervention by the community health nurse is an example of a secondary level of prevention?

• A. providing a needle exchange program at a community mental health clinic
• B. developing an educational program for clients with diabetes mellitus
• C. administering influenza vaccines to residents of a nursing home
• D. initiating contact notifications for sexual partners of an HIV client

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering influenza vaccines to residents of a nursing home is an example of secondary prevention. Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat a disease or condition in its early stages to prevent complications. In this case, administering influenza vaccines helps prevent the spread of the flu among vulnerable individuals. Choices A, B, and D are not examples of secondary prevention. Providing a needle exchange program (Choice A) is a harm reduction strategy (tertiary prevention). Developing an educational program for clients with diabetes mellitus (Choice B) focuses on health promotion and primary prevention. Initiating contact notifications for sexual partners of an HIV client (Choice D) is a measure to prevent further transmission of the disease but is more aligned with tertiary prevention.

3. The nurse is assessing a client with pneumonia. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Temperature of 99°F (37.2°C).
• B. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute.
• C. Heart rate of 90 beats per minute.
• D. Fatigue.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with pneumonia, a heart rate of 90 beats per minute requires immediate intervention. Jugular vein distention indicates increased central venous pressure, suggesting possible complications like heart failure or fluid overload. Monitoring the heart rate closely and addressing any signs of heart failure promptly are crucial. A temperature of 99°F is within normal range and does not require immediate intervention. A respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute is also normal. Fatigue is a common symptom in pneumonia but does not indicate an immediate need for intervention compared to the critical nature of jugular vein distention.

4. A client is receiving atenolol (Tenormin) 25 mg PO after a myocardial infarction. The nurse determines the client's apical pulse is 65 beats per minute. What action should the nurse take next?

• A. Hold the medication.
• B. Call the healthcare provider.
• C. Administer the medication.
• D. Check the blood pressure.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to administer the medication. Atenolol is a beta-blocker commonly used post-myocardial infarction to reduce the workload of the heart. The client's apical pulse of 65 beats per minute is within the acceptable range after a myocardial infarction. Holding the medication or calling the healthcare provider is not necessary in this scenario as the pulse rate is appropriate for administering atenolol. Checking the blood pressure is not the priority in this situation, as the focus should be on the heart rate when administering atenolol.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which laboratory result requires immediate intervention?

• A. Blood glucose of 250 mg/dL.
• B. Serum potassium of 3.5 mEq/L.
• C. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L.
• D. Arterial blood pH of 7.30.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An arterial blood pH of 7.30 indicates the client is in acidosis, which is a life-threatening condition in DKA. Immediate intervention is required to correct the acidosis and prevent further complications such as organ failure or coma. Blood glucose of 250 mg/dL is elevated but not an immediate threat to life in comparison to acidosis. Serum potassium of 3.5 mEq/L and serum sodium of 135 mEq/L are within normal ranges and do not warrant immediate intervention in the context of DKA.

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