Nursing Elites

1. A female client reports to the nurse that her sleep was interrupted by 'thoughts of anger towards my husband.' What type of thoughts is the client having?

• A. Obsessive.
• B. Phobic.
• C. Delusional.
• D. Paranoid.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Obsessive. Obsessive thoughts are recurring, unwanted, and intrusive thoughts that cause distress or anxiety. In this scenario, the client is experiencing repetitive thoughts of anger towards her husband, indicating an inability to control these thoughts. Choice B, Phobic, is incorrect as phobic thoughts are related to irrational fears. Choice C, Delusional, is incorrect as delusional thoughts involve fixed false beliefs. Choice D, Paranoid, is incorrect as paranoid thoughts involve irrational suspicions and mistrust.

2. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a chest tube. Which observation indicates that the chest tube is functioning properly?

• A. Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber.
• B. No fluctuation (tidaling) in the water-seal chamber.
• C. Intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber.
• D. Drainage of clear, pale yellow fluid from the chest tube.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The drainage of clear, pale yellow fluid from the chest tube is an indication of proper chest tube functioning. Clear, pale yellow fluid signifies normal drainage from the pleural space without any signs of infection or complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber, no fluctuation in the water-seal chamber, and intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber are all indications of potential issues or malfunctioning of the chest tube system, which would require further assessment and intervention.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL.
• B. Reticulocyte count of 1%.
• C. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
• D. Serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL. Erythropoietin therapy stimulates red blood cell production, leading to an increase in hemoglobin levels. A hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL indicates that the therapy is effective in managing anemia associated with chronic kidney disease. Choice B, a reticulocyte count of 1%, is not a direct indicator of the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Choice C, a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg, is important to monitor in clients with chronic kidney disease but does not specifically indicate the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Choice D, a serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL, is related to iron stores in the body and may be monitored during erythropoietin therapy but does not directly reflect the therapy's effectiveness in increasing red blood cell production.

4. A female client is admitted with a tentative diagnosis of Guillain-Barre syndrome. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Facial weakness and difficulty speaking.
• B. Decreased deep tendon reflexes in the legs.
• C. Inability to move the eyes.
• D. Respiratory distress and cyanosis.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In Guillain-Barre syndrome, decreased deep tendon reflexes are a critical finding that may indicate impending respiratory failure. This is due to the involvement of the peripheral nervous system affecting the muscles, including those involved in breathing. Reporting decreased deep tendon reflexes promptly is essential to prevent respiratory compromise. Facial weakness, difficulty speaking, and inability to move the eyes are common manifestations of Guillain-Barre syndrome but are not as immediately concerning as respiratory distress and impending respiratory failure.

5. A 6-year-old child is alert but quiet when brought to the emergency center with periorbital ecchymosis and ecchymosis behind the ears. The nurse suspects potential child abuse and continues to assess the child for additional manifestations of a basilar skull fracture. What assessment finding would be consistent with the basilar skull fracture?

• A. Blurred vision.
• B. Shoulder pain.
• C. Abdominal pain.
• D. Rhinorrhea or otorrhea with halo sign.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Rhinorrhea or otorrhea with halo sign. Raccoon eyes (periorbital ecchymosis) and Battle's sign (ecchymosis behind the ear) are signs of a basilar skull fracture, indicating the need to assess for possible meningeal tears that manifest as a halo sign with cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage from the ears or nose. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because blurred vision, shoulder pain, and abdominal pain are not typically associated with a basilar skull fracture.

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