Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assessing a client with pneumonia. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Temperature of 99°F (37.2°C).
• B. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute.
• C. Heart rate of 90 beats per minute.
• D. Fatigue.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with pneumonia, a heart rate of 90 beats per minute requires immediate intervention. Jugular vein distention indicates increased central venous pressure, suggesting possible complications like heart failure or fluid overload. Monitoring the heart rate closely and addressing any signs of heart failure promptly are crucial. A temperature of 99°F is within normal range and does not require immediate intervention. A respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute is also normal. Fatigue is a common symptom in pneumonia but does not indicate an immediate need for intervention compared to the critical nature of jugular vein distention.

2. The home health nurse visits a young male client with AIDS who has Kaposi's sarcoma and peripheral neuropathies. His parents, who are the caregivers, tell the nurse that their son sleeps most of the time. The nurse assesses that the client is semi-conscious with stable vital signs, cries out in pain when turned or moved, has a Duragesic pain patch in place, and skin lesions that are closed and dried. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. remove the Duragesic patch as directed by the prescription
• B. give the client a complete bed bath to further assess the client's condition
• C. discuss end-of-life decisions with the client's parents
• D. call for ambulance transportation to the hospital immediately

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the client with AIDS is showing signs of being in a critical condition - semi-conscious, in pain, and with stable vital signs. The appropriate intervention for the nurse to implement is to discuss end-of-life decisions with the client's parents. Given the client's symptoms, the presence of a pain patch, and the closed and dried skin lesions, it is essential to address end-of-life care planning. Removing the Duragesic patch without proper authorization can lead to inadequate pain management and should not be done without consulting the healthcare provider. Giving a complete bed bath is not the priority in this situation as it does not address the immediate needs of the client. Calling for ambulance transportation to the hospital immediately may not be necessary if the client is stable; instead, the focus should be on providing appropriate support and having critical discussions about the client's care preferences.

3. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is admitted with unilateral leg swelling. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Elevate the affected leg on a pillow.
• B. Apply a warm compress to the affected leg.
• C. Perform passive range-of-motion exercises on the affected leg.
• D. Encourage the client to ambulate frequently.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and unilateral leg swelling is to elevate the affected leg on a pillow. Elevating the affected leg helps reduce swelling and pain by promoting venous return and preventing stasis of blood flow. Applying a warm compress (Choice B) may increase inflammation and worsen the condition. Performing passive range-of-motion exercises (Choice C) and encouraging ambulation (Choice D) can dislodge a clot and lead to potential embolism, making these choices contraindicated in a client with DVT.

4. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is admitted with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS). Which laboratory result requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum osmolality of 320 mOsm/kg.
• B. Serum glucose of 600 mg/dL.
• C. Serum potassium of 4.5 mEq/L.
• D. Serum sodium of 140 mEq/L.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum glucose level of 600 mg/dL is extremely high in a client with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS) and poses a significant risk of serious complications such as dehydration, coma, and electrolyte imbalances. Rapid intervention is crucial to normalize the glucose level and prevent further deterioration. Serum osmolality of 320 mOsm/kg, serum potassium of 4.5 mEq/L, and serum sodium of 140 mEq/L, while important to monitor in HHS, do not represent an immediate life-threatening condition that requires urgent intervention compared to the critically high glucose level.

5. A client with asthma receives a prescription for high blood pressure during a clinic visit. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate the client to receive that is least likely to exacerbate asthma?

• A. Pindolol (Visken)
• B. Carteolol (Ocupress)
• C. Metoprolol tartrate (Lopressor)
• D. Propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Metoprolol tartrate (Lopressor). Metoprolol is a beta2 blocking agent that is cardioselective and less likely to cause bronchoconstriction, making it a suitable antihypertensive option for clients with asthma. Choices A, B, and D are non-selective beta-blockers which can potentially exacerbate asthma symptoms by causing bronchoconstriction.

Similar Questions