Nursing Elites

1. Which intervention by the community health nurse is an example of a secondary level of prevention?

• A. providing a needle exchange program at a community mental health clinic
• B. developing an educational program for clients with diabetes mellitus
• C. administering influenza vaccines to residents of a nursing home
• D. initiating contact notifications for sexual partners of an HIV client

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering influenza vaccines to residents of a nursing home is an example of secondary prevention. Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat a disease or condition in its early stages to prevent complications. In this case, administering influenza vaccines helps prevent the spread of the flu among vulnerable individuals. Choices A, B, and D are not examples of secondary prevention. Providing a needle exchange program (Choice A) is a harm reduction strategy (tertiary prevention). Developing an educational program for clients with diabetes mellitus (Choice B) focuses on health promotion and primary prevention. Initiating contact notifications for sexual partners of an HIV client (Choice D) is a measure to prevent further transmission of the disease but is more aligned with tertiary prevention.

2. A client with a history of epilepsy is admitted with status epilepticus. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
• B. Lorazepam (Ativan)
• C. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
• D. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the management of status epilepticus, the initial medication of choice is a benzodiazepine such as lorazepam (Ativan) to rapidly terminate the seizure activity. Lorazepam acts quickly and effectively in stopping seizures. Phenytoin (Dilantin) is often used as a second-line agent for status epilepticus, and carbamazepine (Tegretol) is not typically indicated for the acute treatment of status epilepticus. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is a pain reliever and antipyretic but is not used in the treatment of status epilepticus.

3. A client with hypertension is being seen in a community clinic. The nurse notes that the client has not been taking their prescribed medication regularly. What is the most appropriate initial intervention?

• A. Educate the client on the importance of medication adherence
• B. Explore the reasons for non-adherence with the client
• C. Refer the client to a hypertension specialist
• D. Adjust the client's medication regimen

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate initial intervention when a client is not adhering to prescribed medication is to explore the reasons for non-adherence with the client. Understanding the client's perspective can help identify barriers to adherence, such as side effects, cost, forgetfulness, or misunderstanding of the treatment. By addressing these reasons, the nurse can work collaboratively with the client to develop strategies to improve medication compliance. Educating the client on the importance of adherence (Choice A) may be necessary but should come after exploring the reasons for non-adherence. Referring the client to a hypertension specialist (Choice C) or adjusting the medication regimen (Choice D) should be considered after addressing the underlying reasons for non-adherence.

4. During a home visit, the nurse observes that a client with limited mobility has difficulty preparing meals. What should the nurse do first?

• A. suggest that the client use a meal delivery service
• B. assist the client in meal planning
• C. refer the client to a dietitian
• D. educate the client on easy-to-prepare healthy meals

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assisting the client in meal planning is the most appropriate initial action as it addresses the immediate issue of meal preparation. By helping the client plan meals according to their dietary needs and limitations, the nurse can support the client in maintaining a healthy diet despite limited mobility. While suggesting a meal delivery service (Choice A) may be a viable option, assisting in meal planning allows for more personalized and sustainable solutions. Referring the client to a dietitian (Choice C) may be necessary for specialized nutritional advice but is not the first step in addressing the immediate concern. Educating the client on easy-to-prepare healthy meals (Choice D) could be beneficial, but meal planning is a more comprehensive approach to ensure the client's dietary needs are met consistently.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL.
• B. Reticulocyte count of 1%.
• C. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
• D. Serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL. Erythropoietin therapy stimulates red blood cell production, leading to an increase in hemoglobin levels. A hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL indicates that the therapy is effective in managing anemia associated with chronic kidney disease. Choice B, a reticulocyte count of 1%, is not a direct indicator of the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Choice C, a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg, is important to monitor in clients with chronic kidney disease but does not specifically indicate the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Choice D, a serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL, is related to iron stores in the body and may be monitored during erythropoietin therapy but does not directly reflect the therapy's effectiveness in increasing red blood cell production.

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