Nursing Elites

1. Which intervention by the community health nurse is an example of a secondary level of prevention?

• A. providing a needle exchange program at a community mental health clinic
• B. developing an educational program for clients with diabetes mellitus
• C. administering influenza vaccines to residents of a nursing home
• D. initiating contact notifications for sexual partners of an HIV client

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering influenza vaccines to residents of a nursing home is an example of secondary prevention. Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat a disease or condition in its early stages to prevent complications. In this case, administering influenza vaccines helps prevent the spread of the flu among vulnerable individuals. Choices A, B, and D are not examples of secondary prevention. Providing a needle exchange program (Choice A) is a harm reduction strategy (tertiary prevention). Developing an educational program for clients with diabetes mellitus (Choice B) focuses on health promotion and primary prevention. Initiating contact notifications for sexual partners of an HIV client (Choice D) is a measure to prevent further transmission of the disease but is more aligned with tertiary prevention.

2. When documenting assessment data, which statement should the nurse record in the narrative nursing notes?

• A. Client appears anxious.
• B. Client's skin is warm and dry.
• C. S1 murmur auscultated in supine position.
• D. Client is resting quietly.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. When documenting assessment data in the narrative nursing notes, it is essential to include objective findings that are specific, clear, and descriptive. 'S1 murmur auscultated in supine position' provides a precise and objective assessment finding that can aid in accurately documenting the client's condition. Choices A, B, and D are more subjective statements that lack the specificity and clarity required for detailed documentation. 'Client appears anxious' and 'Client is resting quietly' are subjective observations, while 'Client's skin is warm and dry' is an objective finding but may not be as significant or relevant for comprehensive documentation as the auscultated murmur.

3. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with pneumonia. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 88%
• B. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
• C. Heart rate of 90 beats per minute
• D. Productive cough with green sputum

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with COPD admitted with pneumonia, a productive cough with green sputum indicates a potential bacterial infection. Green sputum is commonly associated with bacterial pneumonia, which requires immediate intervention with appropriate antibiotics. Monitoring oxygen saturation, respiratory rate, and heart rate are essential in COPD patients, but the presence of green sputum suggests an urgent need for targeted treatment to address the underlying infection. Oxygen saturation of 88% is concerning but may not directly indicate the need for immediate intervention in the absence of other critical symptoms. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute and a heart rate of 90 beats per minute are within normal limits and may not be indicative of an acute issue requiring immediate intervention in this context.

4. The nurse obtains a heart rate of 92 and a blood pressure of 110/76 before administering a scheduled dose of verapamil (Calan) for a client with atrial flutter. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer the dose as prescribed.
• B. Hold the medication.
• C. Call the healthcare provider.
• D. Repeat the vital signs in 30 minutes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action is to administer the dose as prescribed. Verapamil slows sinoatrial nodal automaticity and delays atrioventricular nodal conduction, which helps in slowing the ventricular rate. The heart rate of 92 and blood pressure of 110/76 are within an acceptable range for administering verapamil in a client with atrial flutter. Holding the medication, calling the healthcare provider, or repeating the vital signs in 30 minutes are not necessary based on the vital signs obtained and the action of verapamil in this scenario.

5. A public health nurse is planning an educational campaign to reduce the incidence of hypertension in the community. Which group should be the primary target of this campaign?

• A. adolescents
• B. young adults
• C. middle-aged adults
• D. older adults

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, middle-aged adults. Middle-aged adults are at a higher risk for developing hypertension due to lifestyle factors and aging. Targeting this group for preventive measures such as dietary changes, exercise, and stress management can have a significant impact on reducing the incidence of hypertension. Choices A, B, and D are less appropriate targets as adolescents generally have lower rates of hypertension, young adults are less likely to be affected by hypertension at this stage, and older adults may already have established hypertension or comorbidities that could make prevention more challenging.

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