Nursing Elites

1. Which intervention by the community health nurse is an example of a secondary level of prevention?

• A. providing a needle exchange program at a community mental health clinic
• B. developing an educational program for clients with diabetes mellitus
• C. administering influenza vaccines to residents of a nursing home
• D. initiating contact notifications for sexual partners of an HIV client

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering influenza vaccines to residents of a nursing home is an example of secondary prevention. Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat a disease or condition in its early stages to prevent complications. In this case, administering influenza vaccines helps prevent the spread of the flu among vulnerable individuals. Choices A, B, and D are not examples of secondary prevention. Providing a needle exchange program (Choice A) is a harm reduction strategy (tertiary prevention). Developing an educational program for clients with diabetes mellitus (Choice B) focuses on health promotion and primary prevention. Initiating contact notifications for sexual partners of an HIV client (Choice D) is a measure to prevent further transmission of the disease but is more aligned with tertiary prevention.

2. When developing a program to support caregivers of elderly patients, which topic should be prioritized in the first session?

• A. Managing medication schedules
• B. Recognizing signs of caregiver burnout
• C. Effective communication with healthcare providers
• D. Navigating insurance and financial issues

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Recognizing signs of caregiver burnout is the most critical topic to prioritize in the first session. Caregiver burnout can have detrimental effects on both the caregiver and the elderly patient's well-being. By addressing this issue early on, caregivers can learn to identify the signs of burnout, take necessary steps to prevent it, and ensure they can continue providing effective care for their loved ones. Managing medication schedules, effective communication with healthcare providers, and navigating insurance and financial issues are also important aspects to cover in the program. However, recognizing signs of caregiver burnout is essential for the overall health and quality of care provided by the caregivers.

3. When planning a community health fair to promote mental health awareness, which activity should be included to best engage participants?

• A. free mental health screenings
• B. lectures on mental health topics
• C. distribution of mental health resources
• D. interactive workshops on stress management

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best activity to engage participants in a community health fair promoting mental health awareness is to offer free mental health screenings. This activity not only attracts participants but also provides them with immediate, valuable information about their mental health status. Free screenings can help raise awareness, encourage early detection of mental health issues, and prompt participants to seek further assistance if needed. Lectures, while informative, may not be as engaging or impactful as the personalized feedback individuals receive from screenings. Distributing resources is helpful, but active engagement through screenings is more effective in promoting awareness and encouraging action. Interactive workshops on stress management are beneficial but might not provide the same level of individualized insight into mental health as screenings do.

4. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer digoxin (Lanoxin) to a client. Which assessment finding should the healthcare provider report before administering the medication?

• A. Apical pulse of 58 beats per minute.
• B. Serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L.
• C. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg.
• D. Client reports seeing halos around lights.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Seeing halos around lights is a classic symptom of digoxin toxicity, known as visual disturbances. This finding indicates an adverse effect of digoxin and should be reported immediately to the healthcare provider. Monitoring for visual changes is crucial as it can progress to more severe toxicity, leading to life-threatening dysrhythmias or other complications. Apical pulse, serum potassium level, and blood pressure are important assessments when administering digoxin, but the presence of visual disturbances, such as seeing halos around lights, takes precedence due to its direct association with digoxin toxicity. Changes in these other parameters should also be noted and addressed, but they are not the priority when compared to a symptom directly linked to potential toxicity.

5. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease is admitted with sudden severe abdominal pain. Which finding indicates the possibility of a perforated ulcer?

• A. Bowel sounds are hyperactive in all quadrants.
• B. Abdomen is soft and nondistended.
• C. The client reports sudden severe abdominal pain.
• D. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Sudden severe abdominal pain is a key clinical manifestation of a perforated ulcer. The sudden onset of severe pain is concerning for a perforation in the ulcer, which can lead to peritonitis if not promptly addressed. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because hyperactive bowel sounds, a soft and nondistended abdomen, and a blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg are not specific indicators of a perforated ulcer. Hyperactive bowel sounds may suggest increased gastrointestinal motility, a soft abdomen may not necessarily indicate a perforation, and a blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg is within normal limits and does not directly relate to a perforated ulcer.

Similar Questions