Nursing Elites

1. Which bioterrorism agent is at high risk for use as a potential biological weapon that is readily transmitted by several portals of entry?

• A. anthrax
• B. smallpox
• C. botulism
• D. tularemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Anthrax is the correct answer. Anthrax spores can be transmitted through inhalation, ingestion, or skin contact, making it a high-risk agent for bioterrorism. Smallpox, botulism, and tularemia are also potential bioterrorism agents, but they do not have the same versatility in terms of multiple portals of entry, unlike anthrax.

2. The client with newly diagnosed type 1 diabetes mellitus is being taught about insulin administration by the nurse. Which statement indicates that the client needs further teaching?

• A. I will inject my insulin into my abdomen for the fastest absorption.
• B. I will rotate injection sites to prevent lipodystrophy.
• C. I will store my insulin in the refrigerator at all times.
• D. I will rotate injection sites to prevent lipodystrophy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Insulin should not be stored in the refrigerator at all times; it should be kept at room temperature when in use to avoid irritation at the injection site. Storing insulin in the refrigerator can cause it to thicken and may lead to discomfort upon injection. Choices A and D are correct statements as injecting insulin into the abdomen for faster absorption and rotating injection sites to prevent lipodystrophy are appropriate insulin administration techniques. Therefore, the client does not need further teaching on these aspects.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 88%.
• B. Use of accessory muscles for breathing.
• C. Respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute.
• D. Barrel-shaped chest.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute is an abnormal finding and indicates that the client is experiencing respiratory distress, requiring immediate intervention. This rapid respiratory rate can signify inadequate oxygenation and ventilation. Oxygen saturation of 88% is low but not as immediately concerning as a high respiratory rate, which indicates the body is compensating for respiratory distress. The use of accessory muscles for breathing and a barrel-shaped chest are typical findings in clients with COPD but do not indicate an immediate need for intervention as they are more chronic in nature and may be seen in stable COPD patients.

4. A client with a history of seizures is admitted with status epilepticus. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
• B. Diazepam (Valium)
• C. Lorazepam (Ativan)
• D. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the management of status epilepticus, the initial medication of choice is a benzodiazepine to rapidly terminate the seizure activity. Lorazepam (Ativan) is preferred over Diazepam (Valium) due to its longer duration of action and lower risk of respiratory depression. Phenytoin (Dilantin) and Carbamazepine (Tegretol) are not the first-line agents for the acute treatment of status epilepticus, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which laboratory result requires immediate intervention?

• A. Blood glucose of 250 mg/dL.
• B. Serum potassium of 3.5 mEq/L.
• C. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L.
• D. Arterial blood pH of 7.30.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An arterial blood pH of 7.30 indicates the client is in acidosis, which is a life-threatening condition in DKA. Immediate intervention is required to correct the acidosis and prevent further complications such as organ failure or coma. Blood glucose of 250 mg/dL is elevated but not an immediate threat to life in comparison to acidosis. Serum potassium of 3.5 mEq/L and serum sodium of 135 mEq/L are within normal ranges and do not warrant immediate intervention in the context of DKA.

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