Nursing Elites

1. The nurse notes a serum calcium level of 7.9 mg/dL for a patient who has chronic malnutrition. Which action should the nurse take next?

• A. Monitor ionized calcium level.
• B. Give oral calcium citrate tablets.
• C. Check parathyroid hormone level.
• D. Administer vitamin D supplements.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: This patient with chronic malnutrition is likely to have a low serum albumin level, which will affect the total serum calcium. A more accurate reflection of calcium balance is the ionized calcium level. Most of the calcium in the blood is bound to protein (primarily albumin). Alterations in serum albumin levels affect the interpretation of total calcium levels. Low albumin levels result in a drop in the total calcium level, although the level of ionized calcium is not affected. The nurse should monitor the ionized calcium level to get a clearer picture of the patient's calcium status. Giving oral calcium citrate tablets, checking parathyroid hormone level, or administering vitamin D supplements may be necessary based on the ionized calcium results, but they are not the immediate next step in assessment and management.

2. The nurse is preparing to send a client to the cardiac catheterization lab for an angioplasty. Which client report is most important for the nurse to explore further prior to the procedure?

• A. Experiences facial swelling after eating crab
• B. Reports left chest wall pain prior to the admission
• C. Verbalizes a fear of being in a confined space
• D. Drank a glass of water

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Allergy to shellfish can indicate a potential allergy to iodine, which is used in contrast dye for the procedure. This must be explored further to prevent an allergic reaction. Choice B is not directly related to the angioplasty procedure. Choice C pertains to claustrophobia, which can be addressed but is not directly related to the safety of the procedure. Choice D is a routine activity and does not pose a risk to the client during the procedure.

3. A patient is receiving a 3% saline continuous IV infusion for hyponatremia. Which assessment data will require the most rapid response by the nurse?

• A. The patient’s radial pulse is 105 beats/minute.
• B. There is sediment and blood in the patient’s urine.
• C. The blood pressure increases from 120/80 to 142/94.
• D. There are crackles audible throughout both lung fields.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Crackles throughout both lungs suggest that the patient may be experiencing pulmonary edema, a life-threatening adverse effect of hypertonic solutions. The increased pulse rate and blood pressure and the presence of sediment and blood in the urine should also be reported, but they are not as immediately dangerous as the presence of fluid in the alveoli, which compromises gas exchange and can lead to respiratory failure.

4. Before leaving the room of a confused client, the nurse notes that a half bow knot was used to attach the client's wrist restraints to the movable portion of the client's bed frame. What action should the nurse take before leaving the room?

• A. Tie the knot with a double turn or square knot
• B. Ensure that the restraints are snug against the client's wrists
• C. Ensure that the knot can be quickly released
• D. Move the ties so the restraints are secured to the side rails

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority is to ensure that the knot can be quickly released to allow for quick intervention if necessary. Tying the knot with a double turn or square knot (Choice A) may make it more difficult to release quickly in an emergency. Ensuring that the restraints are snug against the client's wrists (Choice B) may compromise circulation and cause discomfort. Moving the ties to secure the restraints to the side rails (Choice D) is not the appropriate action as it can limit the client's movement and access to care.

5. How should the nurse interpret the following arterial blood gas results for a patient who had a tracheostomy placed after a motor vehicle crash: pH 7.48, PaO2 85 mm Hg, PaCO2 32 mm Hg, and HCO3 25 mEq/L?

• A. Metabolic acidosis
• B. Metabolic alkalosis
• C. Respiratory acidosis
• D. Respiratory alkalosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The patient's pH of 7.48 indicates alkalosis, and the low PaCO2 of 32 mm Hg suggests a respiratory cause. The HCO3 level is normal, ruling out metabolic causes. Therefore, the correct interpretation is respiratory alkalosis. Options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the pH and PaCO2 values provided.

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