Nursing Elites

1. The nurse notes a serum calcium level of 7.9 mg/dL for a patient who has chronic malnutrition. Which action should the nurse take next?

• A. Monitor ionized calcium level.
• B. Give oral calcium citrate tablets.
• C. Check parathyroid hormone level.
• D. Administer vitamin D supplements.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: This patient with chronic malnutrition is likely to have a low serum albumin level, which will affect the total serum calcium. A more accurate reflection of calcium balance is the ionized calcium level. Most of the calcium in the blood is bound to protein (primarily albumin). Alterations in serum albumin levels affect the interpretation of total calcium levels. Low albumin levels result in a drop in the total calcium level, although the level of ionized calcium is not affected. The nurse should monitor the ionized calcium level to get a clearer picture of the patient's calcium status. Giving oral calcium citrate tablets, checking parathyroid hormone level, or administering vitamin D supplements may be necessary based on the ionized calcium results, but they are not the immediate next step in assessment and management.

2. At 01:00 on a male client's second postoperative night, the client states he is unable to sleep and plans to read until feeling sleepy. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Leave the room and close the door to the client's room
• B. Assess the appearance of the client's surgical dressing
• C. Bring the client a prescribed PRN sedative-hypnotic
• D. Discuss symptoms of sleep deprivation with the client

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client has a plan to read until feeling sleepy, indicating an intention to sleep. Therefore, offering a PRN sedative-hypnotic (C) is unnecessary, especially since it is a stronger sleep aid. Option (D) is not needed as the client already has a plan to address his sleeplessness. Assessing the surgical dressing (B) is not relevant to the client's immediate need for sleep. Leaving the room and closing the door (A) is the appropriate action to provide a conducive environment for the client to rest.

3. A postoperative patient who had surgery for a perforated gastric ulcer has been receiving nasogastric suction for 3 days. The patient now has a serum sodium level of 127 mEq/L (127 mmol/L). Which prescribed therapy should the nurse question?

• A. Infuse 5% dextrose in water at 125 mL/hr.
• B. Administer IV morphine sulfate 4 mg every 2 hours PRN.
• C. Give IV metoclopramide (Reglan) 10 mg every 6 hours PRN for nausea.
• D. Administer 3% saline if serum sodium decreases to less than 128 mEq/L.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should question the prescription to infuse 5% dextrose in water at 125 mL/hr because the patient's gastric suction has been depleting electrolytes, leading to hyponatremia. Therefore, the IV solution should include electrolyte replacement. Solutions like lactated Ringer’s solution would usually be ordered. The other choices (B, C, and D) are appropriate for a postoperative patient with gastric suction, addressing pain management, nausea control, and correcting hyponatremia if it drops below a certain level.

4. Which task can the registered nurse (RN) caring for a critically ill patient with multiple IV lines delegate to an experienced licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)?

• A. Administer IV antibiotics through the implantable port.
• B. Monitor the IV sites for redness, swelling, or tenderness.
• C. Remove the patient’s nontunneled subclavian central venous catheter.
• D. Adjust the flow rate of the 0.9% normal saline in the peripheral IV line.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An experienced LPN/LVN can monitor IV sites for signs of infection because it falls within their education, experience, and scope of practice. Administering IV antibiotics through an implantable port, adjusting infusion rates, and removing central catheters are tasks that require RN level education and scope of practice. These activities involve a higher level of assessment, critical thinking, and potential complications that are typically within the RN's domain.

5. An adult who has recurrent episodes of depression tells the nurse that the prescribed antidepressant needs to be discontinued because the client is feeling better after taking the medication for the past couple of weeks and does not like the side effects. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. Remind the client that feeling better is the therapeutic effect of the medication.
• B. Inform the client that gradual tapering must be used to discontinue the medication.
• C. Tell the client to discuss the medication side effects with the healthcare provider.
• D. Tell the client that the medication side effects will most likely diminish over time.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best response for the nurse is to inform the client that gradual tapering must be used to discontinue the medication. Abrupt cessation of antidepressants can lead to withdrawal symptoms or a recurrence of depressive symptoms. Choice A is not the best response as it does not address the need for a proper discontinuation plan. Choice C is not the best response as it focuses solely on the side effects and does not address the discontinuation process. Choice D is not the best response because while side effects may diminish over time, the focus here should be on the safe discontinuation of the medication to prevent adverse effects.

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