HESI RN
HESI Fundamentals
1. When assessing a male client, the nurse finds that he is fatigued and experiencing muscle weakness, leg cramps, and cardiac dysrhythmias. Based on these findings, the nurse plans to check the client’s laboratory values to validate the existence of which condition?
- A. Hyperphosphatemia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Hypermagnesemia
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The symptoms of fatigue, muscle weakness, leg cramps, and cardiac dysrhythmias are classic manifestations of hypokalemia. Potassium plays a vital role in muscle function and cardiac conduction, so a deficiency can lead to these symptoms. Checking the client’s laboratory values for potassium levels will help confirm the presence of hypokalemia.
2. When bathing an uncircumcised boy older than 3 years, which action should the nurse take?
- A. Remind the child to clean his genital area.
- B. Defer perineal care due to the child's age.
- C. Retract the foreskin gently to cleanse the penis.
- D. Inquire about the reason for the child not being circumcised.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action when bathing an uncircumcised boy older than 3 years is to gently retract the foreskin to cleanse the penis. This is important to ensure proper hygiene and prevent the accumulation of bacteria that can lead to infections. It is not advisable to defer perineal care because of the child's age, as hygiene is crucial at any age. Asking the parents about the circumcision status may not be relevant during routine perineal care. Reminding the child to clean his genital area is not as effective as directly cleaning the area during bathing.
3. After an adult had an indwelling catheter removed, the nurse catheterizes them as ordered and obtains 200 cc of urine. What is the best interpretation of this finding?
- A. Is voiding normally.
- B. Has urinary retention.
- C. Has developed renal failure.
- D. Needs an indwelling catheter.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The finding of obtaining 200 cc of urine after catheterization indicates urinary retention, as the bladder did not empty completely after the first void. This situation may require further assessment and intervention to address the issue of incomplete bladder emptying. Choice A is incorrect because voiding normally would indicate a larger amount of urine output. Choice C is incorrect as renal failure would typically present with other signs and symptoms. Choice D is incorrect as the presence of urinary retention does not necessarily mean the need for an indwelling catheter immediately.
4. A client in a long-term care facility reports to the nurse that he has not had a bowel movement in 2 days. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Instruct the caregiver to offer a glass of warm prune juice at mealtimes.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider and request a prescription for a large-volume enema.
- C. Assess the client's medical record to determine the client's normal bowel pattern.
- D. Instruct the caregiver to increase the client's fluids to five 8-ounce glasses per day.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a client reports a change in bowel habits, the first step for the nurse is to assess the client's normal bowel pattern by reviewing the medical records. This assessment helps the nurse understand the client's baseline, which is crucial before initiating any interventions. By determining the client's usual bowel habits, the nurse can identify deviations from the norm and make informed decisions on the appropriate course of action. Assessing the client's medical record is a critical first step in addressing the client's bowel concerns. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they jump to interventions without first establishing the client's normal bowel pattern. Offering warm prune juice, requesting a large-volume enema, or increasing fluids may not be appropriate until the nurse knows the client's regular bowel habits and can assess the situation effectively.
5. During a routine assessment, an obese 50-year-old female client expresses concern about her sexual relationship with her husband. Which is the best response by the nurse?
- A. Reassure the client that many obese individuals have concerns about sex.
- B. Remind the client that sexual relationships can be maintained regardless of weight.
- C. Determine the frequency of sexual intercourse.
- D. Ask the client to talk about specific concerns.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best response for the nurse is to ask the client to talk about specific concerns. This approach provides an opportunity for the client to express her worries openly, allowing the nurse to gather more detailed information for a comprehensive assessment and to address the client's concerns effectively.
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