HESI RN
Adult Health 1 HESI
1. A child is diagnosed with acquired aplastic anemia. The nurse knows that this child has the best prognosis with which treatment regimen?
- A. blood transfusion
- B. chemotherapy
- C. bone marrow transplantation
- D. immunosuppressive therapy
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In the case of acquired aplastic anemia, bone marrow transplantation offers the best chance of cure as it replaces the abnormal stem cells with healthy ones. Blood transfusion may provide temporary relief by replacing blood cells, but it does not address the root cause of the condition. Chemotherapy may be used in some cases, but it is not the preferred treatment for acquired aplastic anemia. While immunosuppressive therapy can be effective, especially in patients who are not candidates for a bone marrow transplant, it is not the first-line treatment and does not offer the same potential for a cure as bone marrow transplantation.
2. The nurse is teaching the parent of a child newly diagnosed with a latex allergy. Which information by the parents indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. Rubber-free toys, such as wooden building blocks, are good choices for the child.
- B. Only foil balloons will be used for the child's birthday party.
- C. A diet of healthy fruits, such as bananas and kiwis, is best for the child.
- D. An epinephrine auto-injector will be on hand to treat allergic reactions.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Bananas and kiwis are foods that can cross-react with latex allergy, indicating that the parents need further teaching on managing latex allergies. Choices A, B, and D are correct as rubber-free toys, using foil balloons, and having an epinephrine auto-injector are appropriate measures to prevent and manage allergic reactions in a child with a latex allergy.
3. An adult who has recurrent episodes of depression tells the nurse that the prescribed antidepressant needs to be discontinued because the client is feeling better after taking the medication for the past couple of weeks and does not like the side effects. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
- A. Remind the client that feeling better is the therapeutic effect of the medication.
- B. Inform the client that gradual tapering must be used to discontinue the medication.
- C. Tell the client to discuss the medication side effects with the healthcare provider.
- D. Tell the client that the medication side effects will most likely diminish over time.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best response for the nurse is to inform the client that gradual tapering must be used to discontinue the medication. Abrupt cessation of antidepressants can lead to withdrawal symptoms or a recurrence of depressive symptoms. Choice A is not the best response as it does not address the need for a proper discontinuation plan. Choice C is not the best response as it focuses solely on the side effects and does not address the discontinuation process. Choice D is not the best response because while side effects may diminish over time, the focus here should be on the safe discontinuation of the medication to prevent adverse effects.
4. A patient receives 3% NaCl solution for correction of hyponatremia. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to monitor while the patient is receiving this infusion?
- A. Lung sounds
- B. Urinary output
- C. Peripheral pulses
- D. Peripheral edema
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lung sounds. Hypertonic solutions like 3% NaCl can cause water retention, leading to fluid excess. Monitoring lung sounds is crucial as crackles may indicate pulmonary edema, a serious manifestation of fluid excess. While monitoring urinary output, peripheral pulses, and peripheral edema are also important when administering hypertonic solutions, they do not provide immediate clues to acute respiratory or cardiac decompensation like lung sounds.
5. A patient comes to the clinic complaining of frequent, watery stools for the last 2 days. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Obtain the baseline weight
- B. Check the patient’s blood pressure
- C. Draw blood for serum electrolyte levels
- D. Ask about any extremity numbness or tingling
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to check the patient’s blood pressure. Given the patient's symptoms of frequent, watery stools, there is a concern for fluid volume deficit. Assessing the blood pressure helps determine the patient's perfusion status, which is crucial in managing fluid volume deficits. While obtaining baseline weight, drawing blood for serum electrolyte levels, and asking about extremity numbness or tingling are important assessments, checking the blood pressure takes precedence as it provides immediate information on the patient's circulatory status.
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