HESI RN
Adult Health 1 HESI
1. A child is diagnosed with acquired aplastic anemia. The nurse knows that this child has the best prognosis with which treatment regimen?
- A. blood transfusion
- B. chemotherapy
- C. bone marrow transplantation
- D. immunosuppressive therapy
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In the case of acquired aplastic anemia, bone marrow transplantation offers the best chance of cure as it replaces the abnormal stem cells with healthy ones. Blood transfusion may provide temporary relief by replacing blood cells, but it does not address the root cause of the condition. Chemotherapy may be used in some cases, but it is not the preferred treatment for acquired aplastic anemia. While immunosuppressive therapy can be effective, especially in patients who are not candidates for a bone marrow transplant, it is not the first-line treatment and does not offer the same potential for a cure as bone marrow transplantation.
2. A patient who is taking a potassium-wasting diuretic for the treatment of hypertension complains of generalized weakness. It is most appropriate for the nurse to take which action?
- A. Assess for facial muscle spasms.
- B. Ask the patient about loose stools.
- C. Suggest that the patient avoid orange juice with meals.
- D. Ask the healthcare provider to order a basic metabolic panel.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Generalized weakness is a sign of hypokalemia, a potential side effect of potassium-wasting diuretics. By requesting a basic metabolic panel, the nurse can assess the patient's potassium levels. Facial muscle spasms are associated with hypocalcemia, not hypokalemia. Advising the patient to avoid orange juice, which is high in potassium, would be counterproductive if the patient is hypokalemic. Loose stools are typically seen in hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia.
3. The long-term care nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of protein supplements for an older resident who has a low serum total protein level. Which assessment finding indicates that the patient’s condition has improved?
- A. Hematocrit 28%
- B. Absence of skin tenting
- C. Decreased peripheral edema
- D. Blood pressure 110/72 mm Hg
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The decrease in peripheral edema indicates an improvement in the patient’s protein status. Edema is caused by low oncotic pressure in individuals with low serum protein levels. Good skin turgor is an indicator of fluid balance, not protein status. A low hematocrit could be caused by poor protein intake. Blood pressure does not provide a useful clinical tool for monitoring protein status.
4. A client with bladder cancer had surgical placement of a ureteroileostomy (ileal conduit) yesterday. Which postoperative assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. red and edematous stoma appearance
- B. liquid brown drainage from stoma
- C. stoma output of 40ml in the last hour
- D. mucous strings floating in the drainage
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Stoma output of only 40ml in the last hour may indicate a problem, such as dehydration or blockage, and should be reported immediately. A red and edematous stoma appearance could be due to inflammation, which is expected in the early postoperative period. Liquid brown drainage from the stoma is a normal finding. Mucous strings floating in the drainage are also a common occurrence postoperatively and do not typically require immediate reporting.
5. How should the nurse interpret the following arterial blood gas results for a patient who had a tracheostomy placed after a motor vehicle crash: pH 7.48, PaO2 85 mm Hg, PaCO2 32 mm Hg, and HCO3 25 mEq/L?
- A. Metabolic acidosis
- B. Metabolic alkalosis
- C. Respiratory acidosis
- D. Respiratory alkalosis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The patient's pH of 7.48 indicates alkalosis, and the low PaCO2 of 32 mm Hg suggests a respiratory cause. The HCO3 level is normal, ruling out metabolic causes. Therefore, the correct interpretation is respiratory alkalosis. Options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the pH and PaCO2 values provided.
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