HESI RN
Adult Health 1 HESI
1. A nurse in the outpatient clinic is caring for a patient who has a magnesium level of 1.3 mg/dL. Which assessment would be most important for the nurse to make?
- A. Daily alcohol intake
- B. Intake of dietary protein
- C. Multivitamin/mineral use
- D. Use of over-the-counter (OTC) laxatives
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Daily alcohol intake. Hypomagnesemia is often associated with alcoholism, making it crucial for the nurse to assess the patient's alcohol consumption. Protein intake is not directly related to magnesium levels. The use of over-the-counter laxatives and multivitamin/mineral supplements would typically increase magnesium levels, which are not the focus when dealing with hypomagnesemia.
2. The nurse in the emergency department observes a colleague viewing the electronic health record (EHR) of a client who holds an elected position in the community. The client is not a part of the colleague's assignment. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Communicate the colleague's actions to the unit charge nurse
- B. Send an email to facility administration reporting the action
- C. Write an anonymous complaint to a professional website
- D. Post a comment about the action on a staff discussion board
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Viewing the EHR of a client who is not under your care is a violation of HIPAA regulations, regardless of the client's social status or your curiosity. The appropriate action to take in this situation is to communicate the colleague's actions to the unit charge nurse. The charge nurse can then escalate the issue through the appropriate channels within the organization. Reporting to the charge nurse ensures that the incident is handled internally and in accordance with organizational policies and procedures. Sending an email to facility administration, writing an anonymous complaint to a professional website, or posting a comment on a staff discussion board are not the recommended actions as they may not address the issue effectively and could potentially violate confidentiality further.
3. A nurse is assessing a newly admitted patient with chronic heart failure who forgot to take prescribed medications and seems confused. The patient complains of "just blowing up" and has peripheral edema and shortness of breath. Which assessment should the nurse complete first?
- A. Skin turgor
- B. Heart sounds
- C. Mental status
- D. Capillary refill
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Increases in extracellular fluid (ECF) can lead to swelling of cells in the central nervous system, initially causing confusion, which may progress to coma or seizures. Although skin turgor, capillary refill, and heart sounds also may be affected by increases in ECF, these are signs that do not have as immediate impact on patient outcomes as cerebral edema.
4. The nurse is caring for a patient who has a central venous access device (CVAD). Which action by the nurse is appropriate?
- A. Avoid using friction when cleaning around the CVAD insertion site.
- B. Use the push-pause method to flush the CVAD after giving medications.
- C. Obtain an order from the healthcare provider to change the CVAD dressing.
- D. Position the patient’s face away from the CVAD during injection cap changes.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because using the push-pause method to flush the CVAD after giving medications helps remove debris from the CVAD lumen and decreases the risk for clotting. Choice A is incorrect because friction should be used when cleaning the CVAD insertion site to decrease infection risk. Choice C is incorrect because obtaining an order from the healthcare provider to change the CVAD dressing is not necessary; the dressing should be changed when damp, loose, or visibly soiled. Choice D is incorrect because the patient should face away from the CVAD during cap changes to minimize the risk of contamination.
5. A child is diagnosed with acquired aplastic anemia. The nurse knows that this child has the best prognosis with which treatment regimen?
- A. blood transfusion
- B. chemotherapy
- C. bone marrow transplantation
- D. immunosuppressive therapy
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In the case of acquired aplastic anemia, bone marrow transplantation offers the best chance of cure as it replaces the abnormal stem cells with healthy ones. Blood transfusion may provide temporary relief by replacing blood cells, but it does not address the root cause of the condition. Chemotherapy may be used in some cases, but it is not the preferred treatment for acquired aplastic anemia. While immunosuppressive therapy can be effective, especially in patients who are not candidates for a bone marrow transplant, it is not the first-line treatment and does not offer the same potential for a cure as bone marrow transplantation.
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