after receiving change of shift report which patient should the nurse assess first
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Adult Health 2 HESI Quizlet

1. After receiving change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is patient C with a serum magnesium level of 1.1 mEq/L who has tremors and hyperactive deep tendon reflexes. The low magnesium level and neuromuscular irritability suggest that the patient may be at risk for seizures, which are life-threatening. Assessing and addressing this patient's condition promptly is crucial to prevent complications. Patients A, B, and D have mild electrolyte disturbances or symptoms that require attention, but they are not at immediate risk for life-threatening complications like seizures, unlike patient C.

2. A postoperative client has three different PRN analgesics prescribed for different levels of pain. The nurse inadvertently administers a dose that is not within the prescribed parameters. What actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: This is a medication error, and the first step in addressing it is to assess for any side effects of the medication on the patient. Some analgesics can cause respiratory depression, so it is crucial to monitor for vital sign changes or respiratory distress. Once the patient is stable, the next steps would include contacting the provider, documenting the response, and completing a medication error report. Choices B, C, and D are not the immediate priority when dealing with a medication error. While documenting the client's responses and completing a medication error report are important, assessing for side effects and ensuring patient safety come first.

3. A patient comes to the clinic complaining of frequent, watery stools for the last 2 days. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the patient’s blood pressure. Given the patient's symptoms of frequent, watery stools, there is a concern for fluid volume deficit. Assessing the blood pressure helps determine the patient's perfusion status, which is crucial in managing fluid volume deficits. While obtaining baseline weight, drawing blood for serum electrolyte levels, and asking about extremity numbness or tingling are important assessments, checking the blood pressure takes precedence as it provides immediate information on the patient's circulatory status.

4. A patient receives 3% NaCl solution for correction of hyponatremia. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to monitor while the patient is receiving this infusion?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lung sounds. Hypertonic solutions like 3% NaCl can cause water retention, leading to fluid excess. Monitoring lung sounds is crucial as crackles may indicate pulmonary edema, a serious manifestation of fluid excess. While monitoring urinary output, peripheral pulses, and peripheral edema are also important when administering hypertonic solutions, they do not provide immediate clues to acute respiratory or cardiac decompensation like lung sounds.

5. When caring for a patient with renal failure on a low phosphate diet, the nurse will inform unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to remove which food from the patient’s food tray?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Milk carton. Foods high in phosphate, like milk and other dairy products, are restricted on low-phosphate diets to manage renal failure. Green, leafy vegetables, high-fat foods, and fruits/juices are not high in phosphate and are not restricted. Therefore, grape juice, mixed green salad, and fried chicken breast do not need to be removed from the patient's food tray.

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