after receiving change of shift report which patient should the nurse assess first
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HESI RN

Adult Health 2 HESI Quizlet

1. After receiving change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is patient C with a serum magnesium level of 1.1 mEq/L who has tremors and hyperactive deep tendon reflexes. The low magnesium level and neuromuscular irritability suggest that the patient may be at risk for seizures, which are life-threatening. Assessing and addressing this patient's condition promptly is crucial to prevent complications. Patients A, B, and D have mild electrolyte disturbances or symptoms that require attention, but they are not at immediate risk for life-threatening complications like seizures, unlike patient C.

2. Spironolactone (Aldactone), an aldosterone antagonist, is prescribed for a patient. Which statement by the patient indicates that the teaching about this medication has been effective?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, so patients should choose low-potassium foods. Apple juice is a better choice than orange juice in this case as it is lower in potassium. Option A is incorrect because increasing fluid intake excessively is not necessary. Option B is incorrect as salt substitutes are high in potassium, which should be avoided. Option C is incorrect because patients on spironolactone should avoid increasing their potassium intake.

3. An older patient receiving iso-osmolar continuous tube feedings develops restlessness, agitation, and weakness. Which laboratory result should the nurse report to the health care provider immediately?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The elevated serum sodium level (154 mEq/L) is consistent with the patient's neurologic symptoms of restlessness, agitation, and weakness, indicating a need for immediate action to prevent complications like seizures. The potassium level (3.4 mEq/L) and calcium level (7.8 mg/dL) are slightly off from normal but do not require immediate action. The phosphate level (4.8 mg/dL) is normal and not related to the symptoms presented by the patient.

4. A patient has a parenteral nutrition infusion of 25% dextrose. A student nurse asks the nurse why a peripherally inserted central catheter was inserted. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The 25% dextrose solution is hypertonic. Shrinkage of red blood cells can occur when solutions with dextrose concentrations greater than 10% are administered IV. Blood glucose testing is not more accurate when samples are obtained from a central line. The infection risk is higher with a central catheter than with peripheral IV lines. Hypertonic or concentrated IV solutions are not given rapidly.

5. A patient with renal failure has been taking aluminum hydroxide/magnesium hydroxide suspension (Maalox) at home for indigestion. The patient arrives for outpatient hemodialysis and is unresponsive to questions and has decreased deep tendon reflexes. Which action should the dialysis nurse take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The health care provider should be notified immediately. The patient has a history and manifestations consistent with hypermagnesemia. The nurse should check the chart for a recent serum magnesium level and make sure that blood is sent to the laboratory for immediate electrolyte and chemistry determinations. Dialysis should correct the high magnesium levels. The patient needs teaching about the risks of taking magnesium-containing antacids. Monitoring of potassium levels also is important for patients with renal failure, but the patient’s current symptoms are not consistent with hyperkalemia.

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