HESI RN
Adult Health 2 HESI Quizlet
1. An older patient receiving iso-osmolar continuous tube feedings develops restlessness, agitation, and weakness. Which laboratory result should the nurse report to the health care provider immediately?
- A. K+ 3.4 mEq/L (3.4 mmol/L)
- B. Ca+2 7.8 mg/dL (1.95 mmol/L)
- C. Na+ 154 mEq/L (154 mmol/L)
- D. PO4-3 4.8 mg/dL (1.55 mmol/L)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The elevated serum sodium level (154 mEq/L) is consistent with the patient's neurologic symptoms of restlessness, agitation, and weakness, indicating a need for immediate action to prevent complications like seizures. The potassium level (3.4 mEq/L) and calcium level (7.8 mg/dL) are slightly off from normal but do not require immediate action. The phosphate level (4.8 mg/dL) is normal and not related to the symptoms presented by the patient.
2. Following a thyroidectomy, a patient complains of “a tingling feeling around my mouth.” Which assessment should the nurse complete immediately?
- A. Presence of the Chvostek’s sign
- B. Abnormal serum potassium level
- C. Decreased thyroid hormone level
- D. Bleeding on the patient’s dressing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct assessment the nurse should complete immediately is checking for the presence of the Chvostek’s sign. The patient's complaint of tingling around the mouth is indicative of hypocalcemia, which can result from parathyroid injury/removal during thyroidectomy. The Chvostek’s sign is a clinical indication of hypocalcemia, where facial muscle twitching occurs when the facial nerve is tapped. Assessing serum potassium levels (choice B) is not the priority in this situation. While thyroid hormone levels (choice C) play a role in overall health, they do not directly relate to the patient’s current symptoms. Checking for bleeding on the dressing (choice D) is important but not the immediate priority when addressing potential hypocalcemia.
3. The nurse notes a serum calcium level of 7.9 mg/dL for a patient who has chronic malnutrition. Which action should the nurse take next?
- A. Monitor ionized calcium level.
- B. Give oral calcium citrate tablets.
- C. Check parathyroid hormone level.
- D. Administer vitamin D supplements.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: This patient with chronic malnutrition is likely to have a low serum albumin level, which will affect the total serum calcium. A more accurate reflection of calcium balance is the ionized calcium level. Most of the calcium in the blood is bound to protein (primarily albumin). Alterations in serum albumin levels affect the interpretation of total calcium levels. Low albumin levels result in a drop in the total calcium level, although the level of ionized calcium is not affected. The nurse should monitor the ionized calcium level to get a clearer picture of the patient's calcium status. Giving oral calcium citrate tablets, checking parathyroid hormone level, or administering vitamin D supplements may be necessary based on the ionized calcium results, but they are not the immediate next step in assessment and management.
4. Spironolactone (Aldactone), an aldosterone antagonist, is prescribed for a patient. Which statement by the patient indicates that the teaching about this medication has been effective?
- A. I will try to drink at least 8 glasses of water every day.
- B. I will use a salt substitute to decrease my sodium intake.
- C. I will increase my intake of potassium-containing foods.
- D. I will drink apple juice instead of orange juice for breakfast.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, so patients should choose low-potassium foods. Apple juice is a better choice than orange juice in this case as it is lower in potassium. Option A is incorrect because increasing fluid intake excessively is not necessary. Option B is incorrect as salt substitutes are high in potassium, which should be avoided. Option C is incorrect because patients on spironolactone should avoid increasing their potassium intake.
5. At 01:00 on a male client's second postoperative night, the client states he is unable to sleep and plans to read until feeling sleepy. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Leave the room and close the door to the client's room
- B. Assess the appearance of the client's surgical dressing
- C. Bring the client a prescribed PRN sedative-hypnotic
- D. Discuss symptoms of sleep deprivation with the client
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The client has a plan to read until feeling sleepy, indicating an intention to sleep. Therefore, offering a PRN sedative-hypnotic (C) is unnecessary, especially since it is a stronger sleep aid. Option (D) is not needed as the client already has a plan to address his sleeplessness. Assessing the surgical dressing (B) is not relevant to the client's immediate need for sleep. Leaving the room and closing the door (A) is the appropriate action to provide a conducive environment for the client to rest.
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