Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare professional is preparing to administer a blood transfusion to a client with anemia. Which action is most important to prevent a transfusion reaction?

• A. Check the client's vital signs before starting the transfusion.
• B. Use a blood filter when administering the transfusion.
• C. Verify the blood type and Rh factor with another healthcare professional.
• D. Administer antihistamines before starting the transfusion.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Verifying the blood type and Rh factor with another healthcare professional is the most crucial action to prevent a transfusion reaction. Ensuring compatibility between the donor blood and the recipient is essential in preventing adverse reactions such as hemolytic transfusion reactions. Checking vital signs is important for monitoring the client during the transfusion process but does not directly prevent a transfusion reaction. Using a blood filter can help remove clots and debris but does not address the risk of a reaction due to blood type incompatibility. Administering antihistamines before the transfusion is not a standard practice to prevent transfusion reactions related to blood type incompatibility.

2. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a suspected myocardial infarction. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Chest pain radiating to the left arm.
• B. Shortness of breath.
• C. Nausea and vomiting.
• D. Diaphoresis.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Shortness of breath is a critical sign that can indicate heart failure or pulmonary edema, conditions that require immediate intervention in a client with a suspected myocardial infarction. Chest pain radiating to the left arm is a classic symptom of a myocardial infarction but may not necessitate immediate intervention compared to severe shortness of breath. Nausea and vomiting can be present in myocardial infarction but are not as urgent as shortness of breath. Diaphoresis, or sweating, is a common symptom of a myocardial infarction but may not be as immediately concerning as significant shortness of breath.

3. A client with a head injury is admitted to the hospital. Which finding indicates a need for immediate intervention?

• A. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 15.
• B. Pupils are equal and reactive to light.
• C. Client is drowsy but arousable.
• D. Client does not remember the events leading to the injury.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with a head injury, being drowsy but still arousable can be a sign of increased intracranial pressure, which necessitates immediate intervention. This presentation may indicate a deterioration in neurological status, requiring prompt assessment and management to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are not indicative of an immediate need for intervention in this scenario. A Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 15 indicates the highest level of consciousness; pupils being equal and reactive to light suggest intact cranial nerve function, and memory loss about the injury event is common in head injuries and does not necessarily warrant immediate intervention.

4. The nurse is preparing a client for a scheduled surgical procedure. What client statement should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

• A. I am very anxious about the surgery.
• B. I drank a glass of juice after midnight.
• C. I have an allergy to latex.
• D. I had nausea after my last surgery.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The client's statement of drinking juice after midnight should be reported to the healthcare provider. Consuming liquids after midnight can increase the risk of aspiration during surgery under general anesthesia. Choices A, C, and D are not as critical to report for the client's safety during the surgical procedure. Anxiety about surgery, latex allergy, and postoperative nausea, although important for overall care, do not pose immediate risks during the surgical preparation as the intake of fluids does.

5. An 80-year-old client is given morphine sulfate for postoperative pain. Which concomitant medication should the nurse question that poses a potential development of urinary retention in this geriatric client?

• A. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents.
• B. Antihistamines.
• C. Tricyclic antidepressants.
• D. Antibiotics.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tricyclic antidepressants. Drugs with anticholinergic properties, such as tricyclic antidepressants, can exacerbate urinary retention associated with opioids in older clients. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents (Choice A) do not typically cause urinary retention. Antihistamines (Choice B) may cause urinary retention but are not the primary concern in this scenario. Antibiotics (Choice D) are not associated with an increased risk of urinary retention compared to tricyclic antidepressants.

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