Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare professional is planning a health fair to promote cancer awareness and prevention. Which activity is most likely to increase participation?

• A. offering free cancer screenings
• B. distributing pamphlets on cancer prevention
• C. hosting a guest speaker who is a cancer survivor
• D. providing informational booths on different types of cancer

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Offering free cancer screenings is the most likely activity to increase participation in the health fair. Providing direct services such as screenings not only attracts participants but also promotes early detection, which is crucial in cancer prevention. Distributing pamphlets, hosting a guest speaker, or providing informational booths are informative but may not have the same impact in driving participation as the opportunity for free screenings.

2. The healthcare professional is developing a community health program to address the high rates of childhood asthma in a neighborhood. Which intervention should the healthcare professional prioritize?

• A. conducting home visits to identify asthma triggers
• B. distributing asthma education materials at schools
• C. holding workshops on asthma management for parents
• D. partnering with local healthcare providers to offer free asthma screenings

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The healthcare professional should prioritize conducting home visits to identify asthma triggers as it is crucial for reducing asthma attacks in children. By identifying triggers in the home environment, interventions can be implemented to create a safer living space for children with asthma. This approach directly addresses the root cause of asthma exacerbations. Distributing asthma education materials at schools is beneficial for raising awareness but may not address individual triggers. Holding workshops on asthma management for parents is valuable for education but does not directly tackle trigger identification. Partnering with local healthcare providers to offer free asthma screenings focuses on detection rather than prevention through trigger identification.

3. The healthcare professional is developing a teaching plan for an adolescent with a Milwaukee brace. Which instruction should the healthcare professional include?

• A. Wear the brace over a T-shirt for 23 hours a day.
• B. Remove the brace while sleeping.
• C. Wear the brace directly against the skin.
• D. Remove the brace while eating.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A Milwaukee brace should be worn over a T-shirt for 23 hours a day to reduce friction and chafing of the skin. This ensures that the brace is not directly against the skin, which can cause discomfort and skin irritation. Choice B is incorrect because the brace should typically be worn continuously, even while sleeping, unless otherwise instructed by a healthcare provider. Choice C is incorrect as wearing the brace directly against the skin can lead to skin issues. Choice D is incorrect since the brace should not be removed while eating to maintain the prescribed wear time.

4. When examining sources for funding, which criteria should the nurse clarify about the program for the community group?

• A. a prescription from the healthcare provider for each visit made
• B. documentation of a skilled care service provided during the visit
• C. a copy of the client's health history and social security card
• D. a record of the preventive healthcare services provided during the visit

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because when seeking funding sources for a community outreach program, it is essential to clarify aspects related to the client's personal information, such as health history and identification details. This information helps in demonstrating the need for the program and understanding the target population. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they focus on clinical documentation, services provided during visits, and preventive healthcare services, which are not directly related to clarifying funding criteria about the program.

5. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with acute renal failure. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Blood pressure of 180/100 mm Hg.
• B. Urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours.
• C. Heart rate of 100 beats per minute.
• D. Nausea and vomiting.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours indicates oliguria, which can be a sign of worsening renal function and requires immediate intervention. In acute renal failure, maintaining adequate urine output is crucial to prevent further kidney damage and manage fluid balance. A high blood pressure reading (Option A) is concerning but may not require immediate intervention in this scenario as it could be due to the history of hypertension. A heart rate of 100 beats per minute (Option C) is slightly elevated but may not be the most critical finding at this moment. Nausea and vomiting (Option D) are important to assess but are not as urgent as addressing oliguria in a client with acute renal failure.

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