Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease is admitted with sudden severe abdominal pain. Which finding indicates the possibility of a perforated ulcer?

• A. Bowel sounds are hyperactive in all quadrants.
• B. Abdomen is soft and nondistended.
• C. The client reports sudden severe abdominal pain.
• D. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Sudden severe abdominal pain is a key clinical manifestation of a perforated ulcer. The sudden onset of severe pain is concerning for a perforation in the ulcer, which can lead to peritonitis if not promptly addressed. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because hyperactive bowel sounds, a soft and nondistended abdomen, and a blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg are not specific indicators of a perforated ulcer. Hyperactive bowel sounds may suggest increased gastrointestinal motility, a soft abdomen may not necessarily indicate a perforation, and a blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg is within normal limits and does not directly relate to a perforated ulcer.

2. A client with chronic renal failure is scheduled for hemodialysis in the morning. Which pre-dialysis medication should the nurse withhold until after the dialysis treatment is completed?

• A. Calcium carbonate (Os-Cal)
• B. Furosemide (Lasix)
• C. Spironolactone (Aldactone)
• D. Multivitamins

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Furosemide (Lasix). Furosemide is a diuretic that promotes fluid loss, and giving it before hemodialysis can lead to excessive fluid loss during the treatment, potentially causing hypovolemia. Withholding furosemide until after the dialysis session helps in preventing this complication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because calcium carbonate, spironolactone, and multivitamins are not typically contraindicated before hemodialysis in clients with chronic renal failure.

3. A client who has active tuberculosis (TB) is admitted to the medical unit. What action is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Wear a gown and gloves.
• B. Have the client wear a mask.
• C. Perform hand hygiene.
• D. Assign the client to a negative air-flow room.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to assign the client to a negative air-flow room (Choice D). Active tuberculosis requires implementation of airborne precautions, including isolating the client in a negative pressure air-flow room to prevent the spread of the infection to others. Choice A (Wear a gown and gloves) is important for standard precautions but does not address the specific airborne precautions needed for tuberculosis. Choice B (Have the client wear a mask) may help reduce the spread of respiratory droplets but does not provide adequate protection for healthcare workers or other patients. Choice C (Perform hand hygiene) is essential for infection control but is not the most critical action when dealing with an airborne infection like tuberculosis.

4. The healthcare professional is planning a health education workshop for a group of adolescents on the dangers of substance abuse. Which strategy is most likely to be effective?

• A. showing videos of the effects of substance abuse
• B. inviting individuals in recovery to share their stories
• C. providing statistical data on substance abuse
• D. distributing brochures on substance abuse prevention

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Inviting individuals in recovery to share their stories is the most effective strategy for educating adolescents about the dangers of substance abuse. Personal stories have a significant impact as they provide real-life examples of the consequences of substance abuse, making the information more relatable and emotionally engaging. This approach can evoke empathy, create a deeper understanding of the risks involved, and potentially deter adolescents from experimenting with substances. Showing videos of the effects of substance abuse (choice A) may be impactful, but personal narratives often have a stronger emotional connection. Providing statistical data (choice C) may not resonate as strongly with adolescents as personal stories. Distributing brochures (choice D) is informative but may not have the same emotional impact and engagement as hearing firsthand experiences.

5. Following an emergency Cesarean delivery, the nurse encourages the new mother to breastfeed her newborn. The client asks why she should breastfeed now. Which information should the nurse provide?

• A. To bond with the baby.
• B. To help the baby latch on better.
• C. To stimulate contraction of the uterus.
• D. To promote milk production.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'To stimulate contraction of the uterus.' After delivery, breastfeeding helps in stimulating the release of oxytocin, which triggers the contraction of the uterus. This contraction is crucial to prevent uterine hemorrhage and facilitate the involution process. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While breastfeeding can indeed help in bonding with the baby and promoting milk production, in the immediate postpartum period after a Cesarean section, the priority is to ensure uterine contraction to prevent complications.

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