HESI RN
Community Health HESI 2023 Quizlet
1. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease is admitted with sudden severe abdominal pain. Which finding indicates the possibility of a perforated ulcer?
- A. Bowel sounds are hyperactive in all quadrants.
- B. Abdomen is soft and nondistended.
- C. The client reports sudden severe abdominal pain.
- D. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Sudden severe abdominal pain is a key clinical manifestation of a perforated ulcer. The sudden onset of severe pain is concerning for a perforation in the ulcer, which can lead to peritonitis if not promptly addressed. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because hyperactive bowel sounds, a soft and nondistended abdomen, and a blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg are not specific indicators of a perforated ulcer. Hyperactive bowel sounds may suggest increased gastrointestinal motility, a soft abdomen may not necessarily indicate a perforation, and a blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg is within normal limits and does not directly relate to a perforated ulcer.
2. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted with pulmonary edema. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Peripheral edema.
- B. Oxygen saturation of 88%.
- C. Jugular vein distention.
- D. Productive cough with pink, frothy sputum.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A productive cough with pink, frothy sputum is a classic sign of pulmonary edema, indicating fluid in the lungs. This finding requires immediate intervention to prevent respiratory compromise and worsening of the condition. Peripheral edema (Choice A) is a manifestation of heart failure but is not as urgent as addressing pulmonary edema. Oxygen saturation of 88% (Choice B) is low and requires attention, but the pink, frothy sputum signifies acute respiratory distress. Jugular vein distention (Choice C) can be seen in heart failure, but the immediate concern in this scenario is addressing the pulmonary edema to ensure adequate gas exchange and oxygenation.
3. The client with liver cirrhosis needs immediate intervention for which abnormal laboratory result?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT) of 14 seconds.
- B. Bilirubin of 1.2 mg/dL.
- C. Albumin of 4 g/dL.
- D. Ammonia level of 80 mcg/dL.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An elevated ammonia level of 80 mcg/dL indicates hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication of liver cirrhosis that requires immediate intervention. Ammonia is a neurotoxin that accumulates in the blood due to impaired liver function, leading to cognitive impairment and altered mental status. Monitoring and lowering ammonia levels are crucial in managing hepatic encephalopathy to prevent further neurological deterioration. Prothrombin time, bilirubin, and albumin levels are important parameters in assessing liver function and overall health status in clients with liver cirrhosis, but an elevated ammonia level poses an immediate threat to neurological function and warrants prompt attention.
4. A community health nurse is applying for a federal grant to support a smoking cessation educational program. In which order should the nurse prioritize these nursing activities? Arrange in order top to bottom.
- A. Determine the target aggregate that will be served by the program
- B. Consider pros and cons of different methods of data gathering
- C. Select and train the data collection personnel
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'D' - All of the above. The nurse should first determine the target aggregate that will be served by the program to understand the specific population in need. Subsequently, they should consider the pros and cons of different methods of data gathering to ensure the most appropriate data collection strategies are employed. Finally, selecting and training the data collection personnel is essential for the successful implementation of the program. These steps provide a logical progression from identifying the target group to analyzing the collected data. Choices A, B, and C are all crucial steps that must be taken in sequence to effectively develop and implement the smoking cessation educational program.
5. A public health nurse is working with a community to improve access to healthcare services. Which intervention is most likely to be effective?
- A. Setting up mobile clinics in underserved areas
- B. Distributing flyers with information about local clinics
- C. Offering transportation vouchers for medical appointments
- D. Partnering with local businesses to provide healthcare discounts
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Setting up mobile clinics in underserved areas is the most effective intervention to improve access to healthcare services. Mobile clinics directly bring healthcare services to the community, making it convenient for residents to access care without having to travel long distances. Distributing flyers may increase awareness but may not address the barriers to access. Offering transportation vouchers helps with one aspect of access but does not directly provide healthcare services. Partnering with local businesses for discounts may not address the primary issue of physical access to healthcare services in underserved areas.
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