HESI RN
Community Health HESI 2023 Quizlet
1. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease is admitted with sudden severe abdominal pain. Which finding indicates the possibility of a perforated ulcer?
- A. Bowel sounds are hyperactive in all quadrants.
- B. Abdomen is soft and nondistended.
- C. The client reports sudden severe abdominal pain.
- D. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Sudden severe abdominal pain is a key clinical manifestation of a perforated ulcer. The sudden onset of severe pain is concerning for a perforation in the ulcer, which can lead to peritonitis if not promptly addressed. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because hyperactive bowel sounds, a soft and nondistended abdomen, and a blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg are not specific indicators of a perforated ulcer. Hyperactive bowel sounds may suggest increased gastrointestinal motility, a soft abdomen may not necessarily indicate a perforation, and a blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg is within normal limits and does not directly relate to a perforated ulcer.
2. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer an intravenous (IV) medication to a client. Which action should the healthcare provider take first?
- A. Verify the client's identity using two identifiers.
- B. Check the client's allergy status.
- C. Prepare the medication for administration.
- D. Administer the medication at the prescribed rate.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Checking the client's allergy status is the priority before administering any medication, especially intravenously. This step helps identify any potential allergic reactions and prevents harm to the client. Verifying the client's identity using two identifiers is important but not the first step in medication administration. Preparing the medication for administration and administering the medication at the prescribed rate come after ensuring the client's safety by checking for allergies.
3. Which annual screening should the nurse include when planning eye health programs at a preschool?
- A. visual acuity
- B. red light reflex
- C. conjunctivitis
- D. glaucoma
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: visual acuity. Screening for visual acuity is essential in preschoolers to identify any vision issues early on, such as nearsightedness or farsightedness, which may require corrective lenses or other interventions. Red light reflex (choice B) is a method used to assess the eyes for abnormalities, but it is not typically included in routine preschool eye health screenings. Conjunctivitis (choice C) is an eye infection and not a screening test. Glaucoma (choice D) is a condition more commonly associated with adults and the elderly, making it less relevant for preschool eye health programs.
4. The public health nurse is called to investigate a report of several cases of chickenpox at a daycare center. The daycare worker states that five children have been sent home over the past two weeks with fever and itchy blisters. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Validate that the children sent home did develop chickenpox
- B. Report the presence of a viral endemic at the daycare center
- C. Confirm the number of children with symptoms
- D. Determine how many people have been exposed
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Validating that the children sent home did develop chickenpox is the most crucial initial step for the nurse. This intervention ensures that the appropriate public health measures are implemented for the containment of chickenpox. Reporting a viral endemic or confirming the number of children with symptoms may be important but are secondary to confirming the diagnosis. Determining the number of people exposed comes after confirming the diagnosis to assess the extent of the outbreak and implement necessary control measures.
5. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which intervention is most important?
- A. Restrict fluids to 1,000 mL per day.
- B. Administer a vasopressin antagonist.
- C. Monitor intake and output.
- D. Encourage a high-sodium diet.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering a vasopressin antagonist is the most critical intervention for a client with SIADH. SIADH is characterized by excessive release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. A vasopressin antagonist helps manage the symptoms by blocking the effects of ADH, promoting water excretion, and restoring electrolyte balance. Restricting fluids (choice A) may exacerbate hyponatremia, monitoring intake and output (choice C) is important but not the most critical intervention, and encouraging a high-sodium diet (choice D) is contraindicated in SIADH due to the risk of worsening hyponatremia.
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