Nursing Elites

1. A client with a head injury is admitted to the hospital. Which finding indicates a need for immediate intervention?

• A. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 15.
• B. Pupils are equal and reactive to light.
• C. Client is drowsy but arousable.
• D. Client does not remember the events leading to the injury.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with a head injury, being drowsy but still arousable can be a sign of increased intracranial pressure, which necessitates immediate intervention. This presentation may indicate a deterioration in neurological status, requiring prompt assessment and management to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are not indicative of an immediate need for intervention in this scenario. A Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 15 indicates the highest level of consciousness; pupils being equal and reactive to light suggest intact cranial nerve function, and memory loss about the injury event is common in head injuries and does not necessarily warrant immediate intervention.

2. A community health nurse is working with a local organization to address food insecurity. Which action should the nurse prioritize?

• A. organizing a food drive to collect non-perishable items
• B. creating a community garden to grow fresh produce
• C. establishing a weekly meal program for those in need
• D. partnering with local businesses to donate food

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is establishing a weekly meal program for those in need. This action prioritizes providing consistent and reliable access to food for individuals experiencing food insecurity. While organizing a food drive (Choice A) and partnering with local businesses to donate food (Choice D) are helpful, they may not offer a sustainable solution for ongoing food needs. Creating a community garden (Choice B) may promote self-sufficiency and access to fresh produce, but it may not address the immediate food needs of individuals who are food insecure. Therefore, establishing a weekly meal program is the most effective choice to ensure regular access to food for those in need.

3. The nurse is conducting a process evaluation of a prevention education program for older adults who are at risk for substance abuse. Which data source provides the information the nurse needs to conduct this process evaluation?

• A. client's score on an alcohol screening instrument
• B. results of a urine drug and alcohol screen
• C. most recent community census data
• D. documentation of client education in the nursing record

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Documentation of client education in the nursing record provides information on the implementation and progress of the educational program, which is crucial for evaluating its process. Choices A and B focus on individual client assessment rather than program evaluation. Choice C, community census data, is not directly related to evaluating the process of the prevention education program for older adults at risk for substance abuse.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a suspected stroke. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Blood pressure of 160/90 mm Hg.
• B. Blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL.
• C. Difficulty speaking.
• D. Temperature of 99.8°F (37.7°C).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Difficulty speaking is a classic symptom of a stroke, indicating a potential blockage of blood flow to the brain. Immediate intervention is crucial to minimize brain damage. While an elevated blood pressure (Choice A) may need management, it is not the most urgent concern in this scenario. A blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL (Choice B) is slightly elevated but does not require immediate intervention for a suspected stroke. A temperature of 99.8°F (37.7°C) (Choice D) falls within the normal range and is not a critical finding in this context.

5. A client with a history of epilepsy is admitted with status epilepticus. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
• B. Lorazepam (Ativan)
• C. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
• D. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the management of status epilepticus, the initial medication of choice is a benzodiazepine such as lorazepam (Ativan) to rapidly terminate the seizure activity. Lorazepam acts quickly and effectively in stopping seizures. Phenytoin (Dilantin) is often used as a second-line agent for status epilepticus, and carbamazepine (Tegretol) is not typically indicated for the acute treatment of status epilepticus. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is a pain reliever and antipyretic but is not used in the treatment of status epilepticus.

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