Nursing Elites

1. A client with a head injury is admitted to the hospital. Which finding indicates a need for immediate intervention?

• A. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 15.
• B. Pupils are equal and reactive to light.
• C. Client is drowsy but arousable.
• D. Client does not remember the events leading to the injury.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with a head injury, being drowsy but still arousable can be a sign of increased intracranial pressure, which necessitates immediate intervention. This presentation may indicate a deterioration in neurological status, requiring prompt assessment and management to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are not indicative of an immediate need for intervention in this scenario. A Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 15 indicates the highest level of consciousness; pupils being equal and reactive to light suggest intact cranial nerve function, and memory loss about the injury event is common in head injuries and does not necessarily warrant immediate intervention.

2. A female client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being treated at home and is currently receiving oxygen at 2 liters via nasal cannula. The spouse, who is the caregiver, reports that the client requires assistance when ambulating short distances, including going to the bathroom. Which suggestion should the health care nurse provide to the caregiver?

• A. disconnect oxygen when ambulating to the bathroom
• B. administer a breathing treatment prior to ambulation
• C. suggest obtaining a bedside commode for toileting
• D. ask for additional assistance to reduce the risk of falls

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For a client with COPD requiring assistance for short-distance ambulation, suggesting a bedside commode for toileting is the most appropriate intervention. This recommendation helps reduce the need for the client to walk long distances, thereby minimizing the risk of exertion and potential falls. Disconnecting oxygen during ambulation (Choice A) is not safe for a client with COPD, as oxygen therapy should be continuous. Administering a breathing treatment before ambulation (Choice B) may not directly address the client's need for assistance with toileting. Asking for additional assistance (Choice D) can be beneficial but providing a bedside commode specifically addresses the current issue of ambulating short distances for toileting.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with cirrhosis of the liver. Which laboratory result requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum albumin of 3.5 g/dL.
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds.
• C. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dL.
• D. Serum ammonia level of 180 mcg/dL.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, the serum ammonia level of 180 mcg/dL. An elevated serum ammonia level indicates hepatic dysfunction and can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, which is a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention. Options A, B, and C are within normal ranges or slightly abnormal values for clients with cirrhosis and do not pose an immediate threat. Serum albumin levels may indicate malnutrition, prothrombin time may reflect liver synthetic function, and hemoglobin levels can be affected by various factors but do not require immediate intervention in this scenario.

4. A client with a history of seizures is admitted with status epilepticus. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
• B. Diazepam (Valium)
• C. Lorazepam (Ativan)
• D. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the management of status epilepticus, the initial medication of choice is a benzodiazepine to rapidly terminate the seizure activity. Lorazepam (Ativan) is preferred over Diazepam (Valium) due to its longer duration of action and lower risk of respiratory depression. Phenytoin (Dilantin) and Carbamazepine (Tegretol) are not the first-line agents for the acute treatment of status epilepticus, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.

5. The nurse is preparing a presentation on sexually transmitted infections (STIs) for a group of high school students. Which strategy is most effective for this age group?

• A. providing detailed statistical data on STI rates
• B. distributing brochures about STI prevention
• C. showing a documentary on the impact of STIs
• D. facilitating a discussion on safe sex practices

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Facilitating a discussion on safe sex practices is the most effective strategy for high school students when educating about sexually transmitted infections (STIs). This approach encourages active participation, allows students to ask questions, share experiences, and engage with the topic in a meaningful way. Providing detailed statistical data may overwhelm the students and not resonate with them effectively. Distributing brochures can be informative but might not promote the same level of interaction and understanding as a discussion. Showing a documentary is a passive method that may not engage the students actively or address their specific questions and concerns.

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