Nursing Elites

1. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is admitted with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS). Which laboratory result requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum osmolality of 320 mOsm/kg.
• B. Serum glucose of 600 mg/dL.
• C. Serum potassium of 4.5 mEq/L.
• D. Serum sodium of 140 mEq/L.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum glucose level of 600 mg/dL is extremely high in a client with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS) and poses a significant risk of serious complications such as dehydration, coma, and electrolyte imbalances. Rapid intervention is crucial to normalize the glucose level and prevent further deterioration. Serum osmolality of 320 mOsm/kg, serum potassium of 4.5 mEq/L, and serum sodium of 140 mEq/L, while important to monitor in HHS, do not represent an immediate life-threatening condition that requires urgent intervention compared to the critically high glucose level.

2. A female client makes routine visits to a neighborhood community health center. The nurse notes that this client often presents with facial bruising, particularly around the eyes. The nurse discusses prevention of domestic violence with the client even though the client does not admit to it. What level of prevention has the nurse applied in this situation?

• A. primary prevention
• B. secondary prevention
• C. tertiary prevention
• D. health promotion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse has applied primary prevention in this situation. Primary prevention involves efforts to prevent the occurrence of domestic violence before it starts, even if the client does not admit to the abuse. Secondary prevention focuses on early detection and intervention to reduce the harm caused by violence that is already occurring. Tertiary prevention involves actions taken to rehabilitate and support individuals who have experienced domestic violence. Health promotion encompasses a broader approach aimed at improving overall health and well-being, which may include education on domestic violence prevention but is not specific to this scenario.

3. The healthcare professional is developing a program to educate parents on childhood nutrition. Which topic should be prioritized?

• A. the benefits of organic foods
• B. how to read nutrition labels
• C. the importance of a balanced diet
• D. ways to incorporate more vegetables into meals

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Prioritizing the topic of the importance of a balanced diet is crucial as it provides a fundamental understanding for parents to establish healthy eating habits for their children. Understanding the importance of a balanced diet helps parents make informed decisions about food choices, portion sizes, and meal planning. Option A, focusing on the benefits of organic foods, while valuable, may not be feasible or affordable for all families. Option B, teaching parents how to read nutrition labels, is important but secondary to understanding the overall concept of a balanced diet. Option D, discussing ways to incorporate more vegetables into meals, is beneficial but should come after establishing the foundation of a balanced diet.

4. The nurse is designing a community health project based on a report provided by the World Health Organization that describes healthcare problems in the United States. Which healthcare issue should the nurse give the highest priority when planning the project?

• A. overuse of diagnostic technology
• B. government-based health insurance
• C. the neonatal and infant mortality rates
• D. number of people without access to healthcare

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: number of people without access to healthcare. Ensuring access to healthcare is fundamental to addressing a wide range of health issues and is a priority for improving overall community health. Option A, overuse of diagnostic technology, though important, is not the highest priority when considering basic access to healthcare. Option B, government-based health insurance, is relevant but may not directly address the issue of lack of access for all individuals. Option C, neonatal and infant mortality rates, is crucial but addressing access to healthcare for all individuals is a more immediate and foundational concern for the community health project.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a new arteriovenous fistula in the left arm for hemodialysis. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. A thrill is palpable on the fistula.
• B. The client's arm is warm and red.
• C. The fistula has a bruit on auscultation.
• D. There is no bruit on auscultation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Warmth and redness in the client's arm suggest infection or thrombosis of the arteriovenous fistula, which requires immediate intervention to prevent complications. A thrill (A) is a normal finding in a functional arteriovenous fistula, indicating good blood flow. A bruit (C) is also a normal finding on auscultation of a functioning arteriovenous fistula, indicating proper blood flow. The absence of a bruit (D) may indicate a non-functioning fistula, which would need further evaluation but does not require immediate intervention as warmth and redness do.

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