Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is planning a health education program for 10-year-olds. Which setting is most likely to increase the preadolescents' participation in the program?

• A. the school classroom
• B. community center
• C. home of one of the children
• D. a local place of worship

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The school classroom is the most suitable setting to increase preadolescents' participation in a health education program. At the age of 10, children are accustomed to the school environment, making it familiar and comfortable for them. This familiarity can help reduce anxiety and increase engagement during the program. Community centers may be less familiar and could pose distractions, potentially reducing participation. Conducting the program at the home of one of the children may lead to unequal access for other participants and may not provide the necessary facilities for an educational session. A local place of worship may not be perceived as a neutral or suitable environment for a health education program, potentially hindering participation.

2. A client who has active tuberculosis (TB) is admitted to the medical unit. What action is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Wear a gown and gloves.
• B. Have the client wear a mask.
• C. Perform hand hygiene.
• D. Assign the client to a negative air-flow room.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to assign the client to a negative air-flow room (Choice D). Active tuberculosis requires implementation of airborne precautions, including isolating the client in a negative pressure air-flow room to prevent the spread of the infection to others. Choice A (Wear a gown and gloves) is important for standard precautions but does not address the specific airborne precautions needed for tuberculosis. Choice B (Have the client wear a mask) may help reduce the spread of respiratory droplets but does not provide adequate protection for healthcare workers or other patients. Choice C (Perform hand hygiene) is essential for infection control but is not the most critical action when dealing with an airborne infection like tuberculosis.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with cirrhosis of the liver. Which laboratory result requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum albumin of 3.5 g/dL.
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds.
• C. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dL.
• D. Serum ammonia level of 180 mcg/dL.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, the serum ammonia level of 180 mcg/dL. An elevated serum ammonia level indicates hepatic dysfunction and can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, which is a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention. Options A, B, and C are within normal ranges or slightly abnormal values for clients with cirrhosis and do not pose an immediate threat. Serum albumin levels may indicate malnutrition, prothrombin time may reflect liver synthetic function, and hemoglobin levels can be affected by various factors but do not require immediate intervention in this scenario.

4. The nurse is assessing an older adult client and determines that the client's left upper eyelid droops, covering more of the iris than the right eyelid. Which description should the nurse use to document this finding?

• A. Ptosis on the left eyelid.
• B. Nystagmus.
• C. Astigmatism.
• D. Exophthalmos.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Ptosis on the left eyelid.' Ptosis is the term used to describe an eyelid droop that covers a large portion of the iris, which may be caused by issues with the oculomotor nerve or eyelid muscles. Choice B, 'Nystagmus,' refers to involuntary eye movements and is not related to eyelid drooping. Choice C, 'Astigmatism,' is a refractive error affecting vision due to an irregularly shaped cornea or lens, not an eyelid condition. Choice D, 'Exophthalmos,' is a protrusion of the eyeball associated with conditions like hyperthyroidism, not eyelid drooping.

5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. The client is able to expectorate secretions easily.
• B. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
• C. The client's respiratory rate is 20 breaths per minute.
• D. The client's arterial blood gases show a pH of 7.35.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with COPD receiving oxygen therapy, an effective response is indicated by a respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute. This suggests that the client is effectively oxygenating while maintaining an appropriate respiratory rate. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because expectorating secretions easily, having an oxygen saturation of 92%, and arterial blood gases showing a pH of 7.35 are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of oxygen therapy in COPD. Oxygen saturation of 92% may still be suboptimal in COPD, and arterial blood gases showing a pH of 7.35 may not necessarily reflect the overall effectiveness of oxygen therapy.

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