Nursing Elites

1. A nurse starts classes for clients with type 2 diabetes. Which information would the nurse use as an outcome evaluation for the class?

• A. Parking convenience for attendees continues to be a major concern.
• B. Fasting blood glucose average readings were 20% lower by the end of classes.
• C. Discussion of food exchanges and calories was a well-attended class.
• D. Demonstrating the use of a blood glucose meter was an effective teaching strategy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A reduction in fasting blood glucose levels indicates the effectiveness of the diabetes management education provided. Monitoring blood glucose levels is a crucial aspect of diabetes management, and a decrease in average readings signifies improvement in managing blood sugar levels. Choices A, C, and D are not direct outcome evaluations related to the effectiveness of the education provided in managing diabetes. Parking convenience, attendance, and teaching strategies are not direct indicators of the impact on the clients' health outcomes.

2. A home health nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for several clients with heart failure. Which client finding would the nurse report to the health care provider immediately?

• A. Total cholesterol 190
• B. Glycosylated hemoglobin of 7%
• C. B-type natriuretic peptide 550 pg/ml (more than 100 is concerning)
• D. Potassium 3.7

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An elevated B-type natriuretic peptide level indicates worsening heart failure, requiring immediate attention. This biomarker reflects the severity of heart failure and helps guide treatment decisions. Total cholesterol and glycosylated hemoglobin are important for assessing cardiovascular risk and diabetes management but are not indicative of acute heart failure exacerbation. A potassium level of 3.7 falls within the normal range and does not suggest an immediate concern in the context of heart failure.

3. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with acute renal failure. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Blood pressure of 180/100 mm Hg.
• B. Urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours.
• C. Heart rate of 100 beats per minute.
• D. Nausea and vomiting.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours indicates oliguria, which can be a sign of worsening renal function and requires immediate intervention. In acute renal failure, maintaining adequate urine output is crucial to prevent further kidney damage and manage fluid balance. A high blood pressure reading (Option A) is concerning but may not require immediate intervention in this scenario as it could be due to the history of hypertension. A heart rate of 100 beats per minute (Option C) is slightly elevated but may not be the most critical finding at this moment. Nausea and vomiting (Option D) are important to assess but are not as urgent as addressing oliguria in a client with acute renal failure.

4. The school nurse is conducting an audit of incident reports for adolescent students. Which finding is the best indication that the Healthy People 2020 objectives are being addressed?

• A. the absenteeism rate has increased greatly over the past two years
• B. during the last year fewer firearms were retrieved on school property
• C. the number of requests for pregnancy testing is higher than last year
• D. decline in the number of students enrolled in school during the year

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A decrease in firearms retrieved on school property is a positive indication that the Healthy People 2020 objectives are being addressed. This finding suggests progress in reducing violence and improving safety in schools, which aligns with the goals of promoting overall health and safety among adolescents. Choices A, C, and D do not directly relate to the Healthy People 2020 objectives. Increased absenteeism, higher requests for pregnancy testing, and a decline in student enrollment do not necessarily reflect the specific health and safety goals outlined in Healthy People 2020.

5. A client with chronic renal failure is scheduled for hemodialysis in the morning. Which pre-dialysis medication should the nurse withhold until after the dialysis treatment is completed?

• A. Calcium carbonate (Os-Cal)
• B. Furosemide (Lasix)
• C. Spironolactone (Aldactone)
• D. Multivitamins

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Furosemide (Lasix). Furosemide is a diuretic that promotes fluid loss, and giving it before hemodialysis can lead to excessive fluid loss during the treatment, potentially causing hypovolemia. Withholding furosemide until after the dialysis session helps in preventing this complication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because calcium carbonate, spironolactone, and multivitamins are not typically contraindicated before hemodialysis in clients with chronic renal failure.

Similar Questions