Nursing Elites

1. A 9-year-old is hospitalized for neutropenia and is placed in reverse isolation. The child asks the nurse, 'Why do you have to wear a gown and mask when you are in my room?' How should the nurse respond?

• A. To protect myself from your germs.
• B. To protect you because you can get an infection very easily.
• C. Until your white blood cell count increases.
• D. To keep others from getting your infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Reverse isolation precautions protect the client from exposure to microorganisms from others.

2. The nurse obtains a pulse rate of 89 beats/min for an infant before administering digoxin (Lanoxin). What action should the nurse take?

• A. Administer the medication.
• B. Hold the medication and contact the healthcare provider.
• C. Double the dose.
• D. Increase fluid intake.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to hold the medication and contact the healthcare provider. Bradycardia (pulse rate less than 100 beats/minute) is an early sign of digoxin toxicity. It is essential to withhold digoxin and notify the healthcare provider to prevent potential adverse effects. Administering the medication (Choice A) could exacerbate the toxicity. Doubling the dose (Choice C) is inappropriate and dangerous. Increasing fluid intake (Choice D) is not indicated in this situation and does not address the issue of digoxin toxicity.

3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Which laboratory result indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. International normalized ratio (INR) of 1.0.
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds.
• C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 60 seconds.
• D. International normalized ratio (INR) of 2.5.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An International Normalized Ratio (INR) of 2.5 indicates that warfarin therapy is within the therapeutic range for a client with atrial fibrillation. A lower INR (such as 1.0) would suggest subtherapeutic levels, risking blood clots. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT) are not specific to monitoring warfarin therapy.

4. A public health nurse is addressing the issue of childhood lead poisoning in a low-income community. Which intervention should be prioritized?

• A. Providing free blood lead level testing for children
• B. Distributing pamphlets on the dangers of lead exposure
• C. Conducting home inspections for lead-based paint
• D. Educating parents about lead poisoning prevention

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Providing free blood lead level testing for children should be prioritized as it directly identifies children who are at risk and in need of intervention. This intervention allows for early detection and timely implementation of necessary measures to prevent further lead exposure or address existing poisoning. Distributing pamphlets (choice B) may raise awareness but does not directly identify at-risk children. Conducting home inspections (choice C) is important but may not be as immediate and targeted as blood lead level testing. Educating parents (choice D) is essential but may not directly identify and address individual cases of lead poisoning as testing does.

5. A 17-year-old unmarried, pregnant client with drug addiction is a high school dropout, homeless, and has a history of past abuse arrives at the clinic for her first prenatal visit. Which findings should the nurse document as health risk factors for the client? (Select all that apply)

• A. age
• B. school dropout
• C. drug addiction
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: All these factors - age, school dropout, drug addiction - are significant health risk factors for the client. Being young, a high school dropout, and struggling with drug addiction can lead to various complications during pregnancy, such as poor prenatal outcomes and social challenges. These factors can impact the client's overall health and well-being, highlighting the importance of addressing them during prenatal care.

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