Nursing Elites

1. The client with peripheral vascular disease (PVD) and a history of heart failure may have a low tolerance for exercise due to:

• A. Decreased blood flow.
• B. Increased blood flow.
• C. Decreased pain.
• D. Increased blood viscosity.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased blood flow. In clients with peripheral vascular disease (PVD) and a history of heart failure, decreased blood flow due to heart failure can result in reduced oxygen delivery to tissues. This reduced oxygen supply can lead to low exercise tolerance. Increased blood flow (Choice B) is not typically associated with reduced exercise tolerance in these clients. Decreased pain (Choice C) and increased blood viscosity (Choice D) are not the primary factors contributing to low exercise tolerance in this scenario.

2. A client who has undergone abdominal surgery calls the nurse and reports that she just felt 'something give way' in the abdominal incision. The nurse checks the incision and notes the presence of wound dehiscence. The nurse immediately:

• A. Contacts the physician
• B. Documents the findings
• C. Places the client in a supine position with the legs flat
• D. Covers the abdominal wound with a sterile dressing moistened with sterile saline solution

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the scenario described, the presence of wound dehiscence indicates a separation of the layers of the surgical incision. The immediate priority for the nurse is to cover the abdominal wound with a sterile dressing moistened with sterile saline solution. This helps to protect the wound from contamination and promotes a moist environment conducive to healing. Contacting the physician (Choice A) is important, but the initial action should be to address the wound. Documenting the findings (Choice B) is necessary but not the immediate priority. Placing the client in a supine position with the legs flat (Choice C) is not indicated in this situation as wound dehiscence requires wound care intervention.

3. The nurse observes an increased number of blood clots in the drainage tubing of a client with continuous bladder irrigation following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). What is the best initial nursing action?

• A. Provide additional oral fluid intake
• B. Measure the client's intake and output
• C. Increase the flow of the bladder irrigation
• D. Administer a PRN dose of an antispasmodic agent

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best initial nursing action when observing an increased number of blood clots in the drainage tubing of a client with continuous bladder irrigation post-TURP is to increase the flow of the bladder irrigation. This action helps prevent blood clots from obstructing the catheter, ensuring effective drainage and promoting client comfort. Providing additional oral fluid intake (Choice A) is important for overall hydration but may not directly address the issue of blood clots in the drainage tubing. Measuring the client's intake and output (Choice B) is a routine nursing assessment that may not directly address the immediate concern of blood clots obstructing the catheter. Administering a PRN dose of an antispasmodic agent (Choice D) is not the best initial action as it does not directly address the issue of blood clots in the drainage tubing.

4. In a patient with anemia, which of the following is the primary symptom to assess?

• A. Fever.
• B. Chest pain.
• C. Shortness of breath.
• D. Muscle cramps.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Shortness of breath. In a patient with anemia, the primary symptom to assess is shortness of breath. Anemia leads to a reduced oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, resulting in tissues not receiving adequate oxygen. This can manifest as shortness of breath, especially during physical exertion. Fever (Choice A), chest pain (Choice B), and muscle cramps (Choice D) are not typically primary symptoms of anemia. Fever may suggest an infection, chest pain can be indicative of cardiac issues, and muscle cramps may be related to electrolyte imbalances or neuromuscular disorders.

5. A client who experienced partial-thickness burns involving over 50% body surface area (BSA) 2 weeks ago has several open wounds and develops watery diarrhea. The client's blood pressure is 82/40 mmHg, and temperature is 96°F (36.6°C). Which action is most important for the nurse to take?

• A. Increase the room temperature.
• B. Assess the oxygen saturation.
• C. Continue to monitor vital signs.
• D. Notify the rapid response team.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is presenting with signs of sepsis, such as hypotension, hypothermia, and a recent history of partial-thickness burns with open wounds. The development of watery diarrhea further raises suspicion for sepsis. With a blood pressure of 82/40 mmHg and a low temperature of 96°F (36.6°C), the nurse should recognize the potential for septic shock. Notifying the rapid response team is crucial in this situation as the client requires immediate intervention and management to prevent deterioration and address the underlying septic process. Increasing the room temperature (Choice A) is not the priority as the low body temperature is likely due to systemic vasodilation and not environmental factors. While assessing oxygen saturation (Choice B) is important, the client's hypotension and hypothermia take precedence. Continuing to monitor vital signs (Choice C) alone is insufficient given the critical condition of the client and the need for prompt action to address the sepsis and potential septic shock.

Similar Questions