Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a patient who is taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX). The nurse learns that the patient takes an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. To monitor for drug interactions, the nurse will request an order for which laboratory test(s)?

• A. A complete blood count
• B. BUN and creatinine
• C. Electrolytes
• D. Glucose

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'C. Electrolytes.' When trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) is taken with an ACE inhibitor, there is an increased risk of hyperkalemia due to the combined effects on potassium levels. Monitoring electrolytes, specifically potassium, is essential to detect and manage this potential drug interaction. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while they are important tests in general patient care, they are not specifically indicated to monitor for the drug interaction between TMP-SMX and ACE inhibitors.

2. A client with histoplasmosis has the following arterial blood gas (ABG) results: pH 7.30, PCO2 58 mm Hg, PO2 75 mm Hg, HCO3 27 mEq/L. Which of the following acid-base disturbances does the nurse recognize in these results?

• A. Metabolic acidosis
• B. Metabolic alkalosis
• C. Respiratory acidosis
• D. Respiratory alkalosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client's ABG results show a low pH (acidosis) and an elevated PCO2, indicating respiratory acidosis. In respiratory acidosis, there is inadequate excretion of CO2, leading to increased PCO2 levels and a decrease in pH. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Metabolic acidosis'. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by elevated pH and bicarbonate levels. Respiratory acidosis involves low pH and high PCO2 levels, as seen in this case. Respiratory alkalosis is associated with high pH and low PCO2 levels.

3. When planning care for a client newly diagnosed with open-angle glaucoma, the nurse identifies a priority nursing problem of 'visual sensory/perceptual alterations.' This problem is based on which etiology?

• A. Blurred distance vision
• B. Limited eye movement
• C. Decreased peripheral vision
• D. Photosensitivity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Decreased peripheral vision.' Open-angle glaucoma leads to a gradual loss of peripheral vision due to damage to the optic nerve. This loss of peripheral vision is a hallmark sign of the condition and a primary reason for the visual sensory/perceptual alterations experienced by the client. Blurred distance vision (choice A) may occur but is not the priority nursing problem. Limited eye movement (choice B) and photosensitivity (choice D) are not typically associated with the sensory/perceptual alterations seen in open-angle glaucoma.

4. A female patient will receive doxycycline to treat a sexually transmitted infection (STI). What information will the nurse include when teaching this patient about this medication?

• A. Nausea and vomiting are uncommon adverse effects.
• B. The drug may cause possible teratogenic effects.
• C. Increase intake of dairy products with each dose of this medication.
• D. Use a backup method of contraception if taking oral contraceptives.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The desired action of oral contraceptives can be reduced when taken with tetracyclines like doxycycline. Therefore, patients on oral contraceptives should be advised to use a backup contraception method while taking doxycycline. Choice A is incorrect because nausea and vomiting are common adverse effects of doxycycline. Choice B is incorrect because doxycycline is not known for causing teratogenic effects. Choice C is incorrect because dairy products can interfere with the absorption of doxycycline, so they should be avoided when taking this medication.

5. A middle-aged adult with a family history of CAD has the following: total cholesterol 198 (11 mmol/L); LDL cholesterol 120 (6.7 mmol/L); HDL cholesterol 58 (3.2 mmol/L); triglycerides 148 (8.2 mmol/L); blood sugar 102 (5.7 mmol/L); and C-reactive protein (CRP) 4.2. The health care provider prescribes a statin medication and aspirin. The client asks the nurse why these medications are needed. Which is the best response by the nurse?

• A. The labs indicate severe hyperlipidemia and the medications will lower your LDL, along with a low-fat diet.
• B. The triglycerides are elevated and will not return to normal without these medications.
• C. The CRP is elevated indicating inflammation seen in cardiovascular disease, which can be lowered by the medications prescribed.
• D. These medications will reduce the risk of type 2 diabetes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: CRP is a marker of inflammation, which is elevated in cardiovascular disease. Statins and aspirin help lower CRP and reduce the risk of heart attacks and strokes.

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