the nurse is caring for a patient who is taking trimethoprim sulfamethoxazole tmp smx the nurse learns that the patient takes an angiotension converti
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

RN Medical/Surgical NGN HESI 2023

1. The nurse is caring for a patient who is taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX). The nurse learns that the patient takes an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. To monitor for drug interactions, the nurse will request an order for which laboratory test(s)?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'C. Electrolytes.' When trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) is taken with an ACE inhibitor, there is an increased risk of hyperkalemia due to the combined effects on potassium levels. Monitoring electrolytes, specifically potassium, is essential to detect and manage this potential drug interaction. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while they are important tests in general patient care, they are not specifically indicated to monitor for the drug interaction between TMP-SMX and ACE inhibitors.

2. The nurse is caring for a newly admitted patient who will receive digoxin to treat a cardiac dysrhythmia. The patient takes hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL) and reports regular use of over-the-counter laxatives. Before administering the first dose of digoxin, the nurse will review the patient’s electrolytes with careful attention to the levels of which electrolytes?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Before administering digoxin, the nurse must review the patient's electrolyte levels, focusing on potassium and magnesium. Hypomagnesemia, similar to hypokalemia, can enhance the action of digitalis and lead to digitalis toxicity. Laxatives and diuretics, like hydrochlorothiazide, can deplete both potassium and magnesium. Therefore, monitoring these electrolytes is crucial to prevent potential adverse effects associated with digoxin therapy. Choice A (Calcium and magnesium) is incorrect because calcium levels are not specifically mentioned as crucial for digoxin therapy. Choice B (Sodium and calcium) is incorrect as sodium is not typically monitored in relation to digoxin therapy. Choice C (Potassium and chloride) is incorrect because although potassium is vital, chloride is not typically associated with digoxin therapy.

3. The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving oral potassium chloride supplements. The nurse notes that the patient has a heart rate of 120 beats per minute and has had a urine output of 200 mL in the past 12 hours. The patient reports abdominal cramping. Which action will the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Oliguria, tachycardia, and abdominal cramping are signs of hyperkalemia, so the nurse should request an order for serum electrolytes to assess the patient's potassium levels. Encouraging the patient to consume less fluids would not address the underlying issue of potential hyperkalemia. Reporting symptoms of hyperkalemia to the provider is not as proactive as directly requesting serum electrolytes. Increasing the patient's potassium dose would worsen hyperkalemia, which is already suspected based on the symptoms presented.

4. Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely to be seen in a patient with chronic kidney disease?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In chronic kidney disease, hyperkalemia is the most common electrolyte imbalance due to the kidneys' reduced ability to excrete potassium. This impaired kidney function leads to potassium retention in the body, resulting in elevated serum potassium levels. Hypernatremia (increased sodium levels) is less likely in chronic kidney disease as the kidneys typically still function to regulate sodium levels. Hypocalcemia (low calcium levels) is not a prominent electrolyte imbalance in chronic kidney disease unless there are additional factors involved. Hypokalemia (low potassium levels) is less common in chronic kidney disease, as the primary issue is usually potassium retention rather than deficiency.

5. A client with overflow incontinence needs assistance with elimination. What intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In clients with overflow incontinence, the voiding reflex arc is impaired. The Valsalva maneuver, which involves holding the breath and bearing down as if to defecate, can help initiate voiding by applying mechanical pressure. Options A and C (stroking the thigh or anal stimulation) rely on an intact reflex arc to trigger elimination and are not effective for clients with overflow incontinence. Intermittent catheterization (Option B) is a last resort due to the high risk of infection and should only be considered if other interventions fail.

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