HESI RN
RN Medical/Surgical NGN HESI 2023
1. The nurse is caring for a patient who is taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX). The nurse learns that the patient takes an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. To monitor for drug interactions, the nurse will request an order for which laboratory test(s)?
- A. A complete blood count
- B. BUN and creatinine
- C. Electrolytes
- D. Glucose
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'C. Electrolytes.' When trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) is taken with an ACE inhibitor, there is an increased risk of hyperkalemia due to the combined effects on potassium levels. Monitoring electrolytes, specifically potassium, is essential to detect and manage this potential drug interaction. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while they are important tests in general patient care, they are not specifically indicated to monitor for the drug interaction between TMP-SMX and ACE inhibitors.
2. A client has been taking oral corticosteroids for the past five days because of seasonal allergies. Which assessment finding is of most concern to the nurse?
- A. White blood count of 10,000/mm³.
- B. Serum glucose of 115 mg/dL.
- C. Purulent sputum.
- D. Excessive hunger.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Purulent sputum. Corticosteroids can suppress the immune system, increasing the risk of infections. Purulent sputum suggests a possible respiratory infection, which can rapidly progress and lead to complications, making it the most concerning finding. Choice A, a white blood count of 10,000/mm³, is within the normal range and not typically a cause for immediate concern. Choice B, a serum glucose level of 115 mg/dL, is also normal and not directly related to corticosteroid use. Choice D, excessive hunger, is a common side effect of corticosteroids but is not as concerning as a sign of infection indicated by purulent sputum.
3. Prior to a percutaneous kidney biopsy, which actions should a nurse take? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Keep the client NPO for 4 to 6 hours.
- B. Obtain coagulation study results.
- C. Maintain strict bedrest in a supine position.
- D. A & B
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Prior to a percutaneous kidney biopsy, the nurse should ensure that the client is kept NPO for 4 to 6 hours to prevent aspiration during the procedure. Obtaining coagulation study results is crucial to assess the risk of bleeding during and after the biopsy. Strict bedrest in a supine position is not necessary before the procedure. It is important to note that blood pressure medications should be carefully managed, but it is not a pre-procedure action. Keeping the client on bedrest or assessing for blood in the urine are interventions that are more relevant post-procedure to monitor for complications.
4. A nurse reviews a female client’s laboratory results. Which result from the client’s urinalysis should the nurse recognize as abnormal?
- A. pH 5.6
- B. Ketone bodies present
- C. Specific gravity of 1.020
- D. Clear and yellow color
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ketone bodies present. Ketone bodies in urine indicate abnormal metabolism, specifically the incomplete breakdown of fatty acids. Normally, there should be no ketones present in urine. Ketone bodies are produced when the body uses fat sources instead of glucose for cellular energy. A pH range between 4.6 and 8, a specific gravity between 1.005 and 1.030, and clear yellow color in urine are considered normal findings for a female client’s urinalysis. Therefore, options A, C, and D are within normal ranges and not indicative of abnormal results in the urinalysis.
5. A client with autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) asks, “Will my children develop this disease?” How should the nurse respond?
- A. No genetic link is known, so your children are not at increased risk.
- B. Your sons will develop this disease because it has a sex-linked gene.
- C. Only if both you and your spouse are carriers of this disease.
- D. Each of your children has a 50% risk of having ADPKD.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Children whose parent has the autosomal dominant form of PKD have a 50% chance of inheriting the gene that causes the disease. ADPKD is transmitted as an autosomal dominant trait and therefore is not gender-specific. Both parents do not need to have this disorder. Choice A is incorrect because ADPKD has a known genetic link and a definitive mode of inheritance. Choice B is incorrect as ADPKD is not sex-linked but autosomal dominant. Choice C is incorrect because ADPKD follows an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern and does not require both parents to be carriers for the child to inherit the disease.
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