the nurse is caring for a patient who is taking trimethoprim sulfamethoxazole tmp smx the nurse learns that the patient takes an angiotension converti
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

RN Medical/Surgical NGN HESI 2023

1. The nurse is caring for a patient who is taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX). The nurse learns that the patient takes an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. To monitor for drug interactions, the nurse will request an order for which laboratory test(s)?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'C. Electrolytes.' When trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) is taken with an ACE inhibitor, there is an increased risk of hyperkalemia due to the combined effects on potassium levels. Monitoring electrolytes, specifically potassium, is essential to detect and manage this potential drug interaction. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while they are important tests in general patient care, they are not specifically indicated to monitor for the drug interaction between TMP-SMX and ACE inhibitors.

2. In assessing cancer risk, which woman is at greatest risk of developing breast cancer?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because family history of breast cancer, specifically in the mother, is a significant risk factor for developing breast cancer. The age of 50 is also a risk factor for breast cancer. Choice A is less likely as breastfeeding can actually reduce the risk of breast cancer. Choice C is less relevant since the risk is higher with a direct family member. Choice D, although early menarche is a risk factor, the age of the individual is much lower compared to the other age-related risk factors.

3. A client with polycystic kidney disease (PKD is being assessed by a nurse. Which assessment finding should prompt the nurse to immediately contact the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Periorbital edema would not typically be associated with polycystic kidney disease (PKD) and could indicate other underlying issues that require immediate attention. Flank pain and an enlarged abdomen are common findings in PKD due to kidney enlargement and displacement of other organs. Bloody or cloudy urine can result from cyst rupture or infection, which are expected in PKD. Therefore, periorbital edema is the most alarming finding in this scenario and warrants prompt notification of the healthcare provider.

4. A healthcare professional has a prescription to collect a 24-hour urine specimen from a client. Which of the following measures should the healthcare professional take during this procedure?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is asking the client to void, discarding the specimen, and noting the start time. During a 24-hour urine collection, the first voided urine is discarded to ensure the test starts with an empty bladder. The specimen should be kept chilled, not at room temperature, to prevent bacterial growth. The last voided specimen is not discarded because it contributes to the total volume collected, so choice C is incorrect. Discarding the specimen and noting the start time is essential for accurate results in a timed quantitative determination like a 24-hour urine collection.

5. A patient is diagnosed with Mycoplasma pneumonia. Which antibiotic will the nurse expect the provider to order to treat this infection?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Erythromycin is the drug of choice for treating Mycoplasma pneumonia. Mycoplasma pneumonia is typically sensitive to macrolide antibiotics, with erythromycin being one of the first-line agents. Azithromycin and clarithromycin are also effective in treating Mycoplasma pneumonia, but erythromycin is specifically mentioned as the drug of choice in this context. Fidaxomicin, on the other hand, is not indicated for the treatment of Mycoplasma pneumonia and is primarily used to treat Clostridium difficile infections.

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