Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a patient who is taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX). The nurse learns that the patient takes an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. To monitor for drug interactions, the nurse will request an order for which laboratory test(s)?

• A. A complete blood count
• B. BUN and creatinine
• C. Electrolytes
• D. Glucose

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'C. Electrolytes.' When trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) is taken with an ACE inhibitor, there is an increased risk of hyperkalemia due to the combined effects on potassium levels. Monitoring electrolytes, specifically potassium, is essential to detect and manage this potential drug interaction. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while they are important tests in general patient care, they are not specifically indicated to monitor for the drug interaction between TMP-SMX and ACE inhibitors.

2. The nurse is caring for a newly admitted patient who has severe gastroenteritis. The patient’s electrolytes reveal a serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L and a serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L. The nurse receives an order for intravenous 5% dextrose and normal saline with 20 mEq/L potassium chloride to infuse at 125 mL per hour. Which action is necessary prior to administering this fluid?

• A. Evaluate the patient’s urine output.
• B. Contact the provider to order arterial blood gases.
• C. Request an order for an initial potassium bolus.
• D. Suggest a diet low in sodium and potassium.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prior to administering IV fluids containing potassium, it is crucial to evaluate the patient's urine output. If the urine output is less than 25 mL/hr or 600 mL/day, there is a risk of potassium accumulation. Patients with low urine output should not receive IV potassium to prevent potential complications. Contacting the provider for arterial blood gases is unnecessary in this scenario as it does not directly relate to the administration of IV fluids with potassium. Administering potassium as a bolus is not recommended due to potential adverse effects. While dietary considerations are important, suggesting a low-sodium and low-potassium diet is not the immediate action required before administering IV fluids with potassium chloride.

3. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports to the nurse that a client with a postoperative wound infection has a temperature of 103°F (39.4°C), blood pressure of 90/70, pulse of 124 beats/minute, and respirations of 28 breaths/minute. When assessing the client, findings include mottled skin appearance and confusion. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Transfer the client to the ICU.
• B. Initiate an infusion of intravenous (IV) fluids.
• C. Assess the client's core temperature.
• D. Obtain a wound specimen for culture.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Initiating an infusion of IV fluids is the priority action to stabilize blood pressure in a client with signs of sepsis. Intravenous fluids help maintain perfusion to vital organs and prevent further deterioration. Option A is not the immediate priority as stabilizing the client's condition can be initiated in the current setting. Option C, assessing the client's core temperature, is important but not the most critical action at this time. Option D, obtaining a wound specimen for culture, is important for identifying the causative organism but is not the first priority in managing a client with signs of sepsis.

4. A nursing student is suctioning a client through a tracheostomy tube while a nurse observes. Which action by the student would prompt the nurse to intervene and demonstrate the correct procedure? Select all that apply.

• A. Setting the suction pressure to 60 mm Hg
• B. Applying suction throughout the procedure
• C. Assessing breath sounds before suctioning
• D. Placing the client in a supine position before the procedure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct suction pressure for an adult client with a tracheostomy tube is typically between 80 to 120 mm Hg. Suction should be applied intermittently during catheter withdrawal to avoid damaging the airway. Assessing breath sounds before suctioning is important to ensure the procedure is necessary. Placing the client in a supine position before suctioning can compromise their airway; instead, the head of the bed should be elevated to facilitate proper drainage and reduce the risk of aspiration. Therefore, setting the suction pressure to 60 mm Hg is incorrect and would prompt the nurse to intervene and correct the procedure.

5. Which of the following is a characteristic of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?

• A. Increased lung compliance.
• B. Decreased lung elasticity.
• C. Increased respiratory rate.
• D. Increased lung expansion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased lung elasticity. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is characterized by a loss of lung elasticity, which leads to difficulty in exhaling air. This decreased elasticity results in air becoming trapped in the lungs, making it challenging for the individual to breathe effectively. Choice A is incorrect as COPD is associated with decreased lung compliance, not increased compliance. Choice C is incorrect as individuals with COPD often have a decreased respiratory rate due to impaired lung function. Choice D is incorrect as COPD causes limited lung expansion due to factors like air trapping and hyperinflation.

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