HESI RN
Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet
1. The client is scheduled to begin continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD). Which of the following statements by the client indicates that more teaching is required?
- A. I will need to limit my intake of protein.
 - B. I can skip a dialysis session if I feel tired.
 - C. I should increase my intake of potassium-rich foods.
 - D. I can eat whatever I want, as long as I take my medications.
 
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Skipping a dialysis session can lead to serious complications as it disrupts the treatment schedule and can result in the accumulation of waste products and fluid in the body. The client must understand the importance of adhering to the prescribed dialysis regimen to maintain optimal health. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because limiting protein intake, increasing potassium-rich foods, and taking medications do not pose the same risk as skipping dialysis sessions. These aspects are important in the management of peritoneal dialysis but do not outweigh the critical need for regular dialysis sessions to prevent complications.
2. A middle-aged male client with diabetes continues to eat an abundance of foods that are high in sugar and fat. According to the Health Belief Model, which event is most likely to increase the client's willingness to become compliant with the prescribed diet?
- A. He visits his diabetic brother who just had surgery to amputate an infected foot.
 - B. He is provided with the most current information about the dangers of untreated diabetes.
 - C. He comments on the community service announcements about preventing complications associated with diabetes.
 - D. His wife expresses a sincere willingness to prepare meals that are within his prescribed diet.
 
Correct answer: A
Rationale: According to the Health Belief Model, the most effective event to increase compliance with the prescribed diet for a middle-aged male client with diabetes is experiencing a significant consequence related to the disease. In this case, visiting his diabetic brother who just had surgery to amputate an infected foot would serve as a strong 'cue to action,' increasing the client's perceived seriousness of the disease. This event is likely to have a more immediate and impactful effect on the client than other options. Option B provides valuable information but may not have the same personal and emotional impact as witnessing a severe consequence firsthand. Option C involves indirect exposure to prevention messages, which might not be as compelling as a direct experience. Option D, while supportive, does not present a direct consequence of non-compliance like option A does.
3. The nurse assumes care for a patient who is currently receiving a dose of intravenous vancomycin (Vancocin) infusing at 20 mg/min. The nurse notes red blotches on the patient’s face, neck, and chest and assesses a blood pressure of 80/55 mm Hg. Which action will the nurse take?
- A. Request an order for IV epinephrine to treat anaphylactic shock.
 - B. Slow the infusion to 10 mg/min and observe the patient closely.
 - C. Stop the infusion and obtain an order for a BUN and serum creatinine.
 - D. Suspect Stevens-Johnson syndrome and notify the provider immediately.
 
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When vancomycin is infused too rapidly, “red man” syndrome may occur; the rate should be 10 mg/min to prevent this. This is a toxic reaction, not an allergic one, so epinephrine is not indicated. Stevens-Johnson syndrome is characterized by a rash and fever. Red man syndrome is not related to renal function.
4. A client presents with a urine specific gravity of 1.018. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Evaluate the client’s intake and output for the past 24 hours.
 - B. Document the finding in the chart and continue to monitor.
 - C. Obtain a specimen for a urine culture and sensitivity.
 - D. Encourage the client to drink more fluids, especially water.
 
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A urine specific gravity of 1.018 falls within the normal range, indicating adequate hydration. Therefore, the appropriate action is to document this finding in the client's chart and continue monitoring. There is no need to evaluate intake and output, as the specific gravity is normal. Obtaining a urine culture and sensitivity or encouraging increased fluid intake is unnecessary in this situation.
5. When conducting discharge teaching for a client diagnosed with diverticulitis, which diet instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Have small, frequent meals and sit up for at least two hours after meals
 - B. Eat a bland diet and avoid spicy foods
 - C. Eat a high-fiber diet and increase fluid intake
 - D. Eat a soft diet with increased intake of milk and milk products
 
Correct answer: C
Rationale: For a client diagnosed with diverticulitis, the nurse should instruct them to eat a high-fiber diet and increase fluid intake. This diet helps in managing diverticulitis by promoting bowel regularity and preventing complications such as diverticular inflammation or infection. Choice A of having small, frequent meals and sitting up for at least two hours after meals may be beneficial for gastroesophageal reflux disease but is not specific to diverticulitis. Choice B of eating a bland diet and avoiding spicy foods is not the preferred recommendation for diverticulitis management. Choice D of eating a soft diet with increased intake of milk and milk products may not provide enough fiber to aid in diverticulitis management, and the increased intake of dairy products may worsen symptoms in some individuals.
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