Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a female client who has recently been diagnosed with cancer and will soon begin chemotherapy. Which of these statements would require additional follow-up and education?

• A. I will be most susceptible to an infection between 7 and 12 days after chemotherapy.
• B. I should try to get my annual teeth cleaning in before beginning chemotherapy.
• C. I should wait until all my hair falls out to purchase a wig.
• D. I should try to drink 8-10 glasses of water a day.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: This client is at risk for altered body image due to chemotherapy-induced hair loss. A wig can assist in coping with this change. It is advisable for the client to shop for a wig before hair loss occurs to better match color and style. Waiting until all hair falls out may lead to stress and limited options in finding a suitable wig. Choices A, B, and D are accurate. Understanding the timing of susceptibility to infection, maintaining oral health before chemotherapy, and staying hydrated are important aspects of care during chemotherapy. Therefore, the statement 'I should wait until all my hair falls out to purchase a wig' requires additional follow-up and education.

2. The LPN is taking care of a client who is on Phenelzine (Nardil) for depression. Which meal would the nurse encourage the client to avoid?

• A. steak and potatoes
• B. prosciutto and cheese plate
• C. orange juice and toast
• D. carbonated water, shrimp and rice

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'prosciutto and cheese plate.' Phenelzine (Nardil) is an MAOI (Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitor), and clients on these drugs should avoid foods high in tyramine due to the risk of dangerous elevations in blood pressure. Prosciutto and aged cheeses are examples of foods rich in tyramine, so they should be avoided. Choices A, C, and D do not contain high levels of tyramine and are considered safe to consume while on Phenelzine.

3. Which of the following actions should the LPN perform for a client with an active digoxin IV order? Select all that apply.

• A. plug the patient to the ECG Monitor
• B. Administer the medication over at least 5 minutes.
• C. Monitor respirations during administration.
• D. Monitor the client's pulse for 1 minute prior to administration.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct actions for the LPN to perform for a client with an active digoxin IV order are to monitor ECG rhythm throughout administration and monitor the client's pulse for 1 minute prior to administration. These actions are crucial as digoxin affects the heart's electrical activity, and it should not be administered if the client's pulse is less than 60 bpm. Monitoring respirations and blood pressure are not directly associated with digoxin administration. Administering IV medications is typically outside the LPN's scope of practice.

4. An amniocentesis is scheduled for a pregnant client in the third trimester. The nurse informs the client that the most common indication for amniocentesis during the third trimester is for which reason?

• A. Determination of whether alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is present in the amniotic fluid
• B. Checking the amniotic fluid for intrauterine infection
• C. Determination of fetal lung maturity
• D. Checking the fetal cells for chromosomal abnormalities

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most common indication for amniocentesis in the third trimester is the determination of fetal lung maturity. This assessment is essential to evaluate the fetus's readiness for extrauterine life. Checking for alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) in the amniotic fluid is more commonly associated with midtrimester amniocentesis to identify chromosomal abnormalities. Assessing for intrauterine infection is not a primary reason for amniocentesis in the third trimester. While checking fetal cells for chromosomal abnormalities is a common indication for midtrimester amniocentesis, it is not the most common indication in the third trimester.

5. A client complains that her skin is redder than normal. The nurse notes the client's skin, documents hyperemia, and explains to the client that this condition is caused by which factor?

• A. Constriction of the underlying blood vessels
• B. An increased amount of bilirubin in the blood
• C. Increased perfusion of the surrounding tissues
• D. Excess blood in the dilated superficial capillaries

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hyperemia is an excess of blood in a part of the body. The skin over a hyperemic area usually becomes reddened or warm. The condition is caused by increased blood flow, local relaxation of arterioles, or obstruction of the outflow of blood from an area. Choice A is incorrect because constriction of blood vessels would lead to decreased blood flow, not excess blood. Choice B is incorrect as an increased amount of bilirubin in the blood is related to jaundice, not hyperemia. Choice C is incorrect because increased perfusion of the surrounding tissues would cause redness, not hyperemia.

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