Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following clinical findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Hyponatremia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hypercalcemia
• D. Hypernatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In SIADH, there is excessive release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. Hyponatremia is a hallmark finding in SIADH due to the imbalance between water and sodium levels. Hyperkalemia (Choice B) is not typically associated with SIADH. Hypercalcemia (Choice C) involves elevated calcium levels, which are not directly related to SIADH. Hypernatremia (Choice D) is the opposite of what occurs in SIADH, where sodium levels are usually diluted due to water retention.

2. The client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is being educated by the nurse about the signs of hypoglycemia. Which of the following symptoms should the client be instructed to report immediately?

• A. Shakiness
• B. Sweating
• C. Confusion
• D. Increased thirst

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Confusion is a critical symptom of hypoglycemia that may indicate a more severe drop in blood glucose levels. Immediate reporting of confusion is crucial as it could progress rapidly to unconsciousness or seizures, necessitating prompt intervention. Shakiness and sweating are common early signs of hypoglycemia but may not require immediate intervention unless other severe symptoms present. Increased thirst is more indicative of hyperglycemia rather than hypoglycemia, and while it should be monitored, it is not a symptom requiring immediate reporting.

3. A client with Addison's disease is receiving corticosteroid therapy. The nurse should monitor for which of the following potential side effects?

• A. Hypoglycemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Hyperglycemia. Corticosteroid therapy can lead to hyperglycemia by increasing blood glucose levels. Corticosteroids can induce insulin resistance, decrease glucose uptake by tissues, and promote gluconeogenesis. While corticosteroid therapy can cause hypoglycemia in some cases, it is more commonly associated with hyperglycemia. Hyperkalemia (choice B) is more commonly associated with conditions like renal failure or certain medications. Hyponatremia (choice D) is typically not a common side effect of corticosteroid therapy unless there are other contributing factors present.

4. An RN enters a patient's room to place an indwelling urinary catheter, as ordered by the healthcare professional. The client is alert and oriented and tells the RN he wants to leave the hospital now and not receive further treatment. Which of the following actions by the RN would be considered false imprisonment?

• A. The RN tells the client he is not allowed to leave until the physician has released him.
• B. The RN asks the client why he wishes to leave.
• C. The RN asks the client to explain what he understands about his medical diagnosis.
• D. The RN asks the client to sign an against medical advice discharge form.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: False imprisonment occurs when a person is prevented from leaving against their will. By telling the patient they are not allowed to leave, the RN is restricting the patient’s freedom unlawfully. Choice B is focused on understanding the patient's reasons for leaving and does not involve restricting the patient's freedom. Choice C aims to assess the patient's understanding of their medical condition, which is unrelated to false imprisonment. Choice D involves obtaining consent for leaving against medical advice, which is a legal and ethical process and not false imprisonment.

5. After taking glipizide (Glucotrol) for 9 months, a male client experiences secondary failure. What would the nurse expect the physician to do?

• A. Initiate insulin therapy.
• B. Switch the client to a different oral antidiabetic agent.
• C. Prescribe an additional oral antidiabetic agent.
• D. Restrict carbohydrate intake to less than 30% of the total caloric intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client experiences secondary failure to an oral antidiabetic agent like glipizide, the next step is often to initiate insulin therapy. This is because secondary failure indicates that the current oral antidiabetic medication is no longer effective in managing blood glucose levels, and insulin therapy may be required to adequately control blood sugar. Switching to a different oral antidiabetic agent may not be effective if there is already resistance to the current agent. Adding another oral antidiabetic agent may not address the underlying issue of secondary failure. Restricting carbohydrate intake is important for diabetes management but is not the primary intervention indicated in this scenario of secondary failure to glipizide.

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