Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following clinical findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Hyponatremia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hypercalcemia
• D. Hypernatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In SIADH, there is excessive release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. Hyponatremia is a hallmark finding in SIADH due to the imbalance between water and sodium levels. Hyperkalemia (Choice B) is not typically associated with SIADH. Hypercalcemia (Choice C) involves elevated calcium levels, which are not directly related to SIADH. Hypernatremia (Choice D) is the opposite of what occurs in SIADH, where sodium levels are usually diluted due to water retention.

2. A client with DM is experiencing symptoms of hypoglycemia. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Give the client a glass of orange juice.
• B. Administer insulin as ordered.
• C. Check the client's blood glucose level.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct first action when a client with DM is experiencing symptoms of hypoglycemia is to check the client's blood glucose level. This step is crucial to confirm hypoglycemia before initiating any treatment. Giving the client orange juice (Choice A) is a common intervention for treating hypoglycemia, but it should not be done before confirming the blood glucose level. Administering insulin (Choice B) is not appropriate for hypoglycemia as it would further decrease the blood glucose levels. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) can be important, but the immediate priority is to assess the blood glucose level to guide treatment.

3. After taking glipizide (Glucotrol) for 9 months, a male client experiences secondary failure. What would the nurse expect the physician to do?

• A. Initiate insulin therapy.
• B. Switch the client to a different oral antidiabetic agent.
• C. Prescribe an additional oral antidiabetic agent.
• D. Restrict carbohydrate intake to less than 30% of the total caloric intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client experiences secondary failure to an oral antidiabetic agent like glipizide, the next step is often to initiate insulin therapy. This is because secondary failure indicates that the current oral antidiabetic medication is no longer effective in managing blood glucose levels, and insulin therapy may be required to adequately control blood sugar. Switching to a different oral antidiabetic agent may not be effective if there is already resistance to the current agent. Adding another oral antidiabetic agent may not address the underlying issue of secondary failure. Restricting carbohydrate intake is important for diabetes management but is not the primary intervention indicated in this scenario of secondary failure to glipizide.

4. In a male client with a history of hypertension diagnosed with primary hyperaldosteronism, the hypertension is caused by excessive hormone secretion from which of the following glands?

• A. Adrenal cortex
• B. Pancreas
• C. Adrenal medulla
• D. Parathyroid

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Primary hyperaldosteronism is characterized by excessive secretion of aldosterone from the adrenal cortex. Aldosterone, a hormone produced by the adrenal cortex, plays a crucial role in regulating blood pressure by promoting sodium and water retention in the kidneys. The adrenal medulla secretes catecholamines like epinephrine and norepinephrine, which are involved in the 'fight or flight' response, not in regulating blood pressure. The pancreas secretes insulin and glucagon, hormones involved in blood sugar regulation, not blood pressure. The parathyroid glands regulate calcium levels in the blood, not blood pressure.

5. The patient expects that a type 1 diabetic may receive ____ of their morning dose of insulin preoperatively:

• A. 10-20%.
• B. 25-40%.
• C. 50-60%.
• D. 85-90%.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: It is common practice to administer 25-40% of the morning dose of insulin preoperatively to prevent hypoglycemia during surgery. Giving a lower percentage (A) may not provide sufficient glycemic control, while higher percentages (C, D) can increase the risk of hypoglycemia during the surgical procedure.

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