Nursing Elites

1. Nurse Kate is providing dietary instructions to a male client with hypoglycemia. To control hypoglycemic episodes, the nurse should recommend:

• A. Increasing saturated fat intake and fasting in the afternoon
• B. Increasing intake of vitamins B and D and taking iron supplements
• C. Eating a candy bar if lightheadedness occurs
• D. Consuming a low-carbohydrate, high-protein diet and avoiding fasting

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A low-carbohydrate, high-protein diet is beneficial for individuals with hypoglycemia as it helps in maintaining stable blood sugar levels. Choice A is incorrect as increasing saturated fat intake and fasting can worsen hypoglycemia. Choice B is incorrect as vitamins and iron supplements do not directly address hypoglycemia. Choice C is incorrect as consuming a candy bar may provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying cause of hypoglycemia.

2. For the first 72 hours after thyroidectomy surgery, nurse Jamie would assess the female client for Chvostek's sign and Trousseau's sign because they indicate which of the following?

• A. Hypocalcemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Chvostek's and Trousseau's signs are clinical manifestations that suggest hypocalcemia, a common complication following thyroidectomy. Chvostek's sign is elicited by tapping the facial nerve, resulting in facial muscle contraction, while Trousseau's sign is provoked by inflating a blood pressure cuff, leading to carpal spasm. Both signs are indicative of low calcium levels in the blood. Therefore, options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not correlate with the signs specifically associated with hypocalcemia.

3. Capillary glucose monitoring is being performed every 4 hours for a female client diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis. Insulin is administered using a scale of regular insulin according to glucose results. At 2 p.m., the client has a capillary glucose level of 250 mg/dl for which she receives 8 U of regular insulin. Nurse Vince should expect the dose's:

• A. Onset to be at 2 p.m. and its peak to be at 3 p.m.
• B. Onset to be at 2:15 p.m. and its peak to be at 3 p.m.
• C. Onset to be at 2:30 p.m. and its peak to be at 4 p.m.
• D. Onset to be at 4 p.m. and its peak to be at 6 p.m.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Regular insulin typically has an onset of action within 30 minutes and peaks 2-4 hours after administration. Given that the insulin was administered at 2 p.m., the onset of action can be expected around 2:30 p.m., and the peak effect would occur between 4-6 p.m. Choice A is incorrect as the onset and peak are too close together for regular insulin. Choice B is incorrect because the onset time is too soon after administration. Choice D is incorrect as the onset time is too delayed for regular insulin.

4. What is the nurse's responsibility when dealing with an impaired colleague?

• A. The nurse should report the colleague to a supervisor and follow the institution's policy for addressing impaired practice.
• B. The nurse should confront the colleague directly and offer support to seek help for the impairment.
• C. Nonmaleficence
• D. The nurse should ignore the colleague's behavior and focus on their own responsibilities.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a nurse encounters an impaired colleague, the appropriate action is to report the behavior to a supervisor and follow the institution's policy for addressing impaired practice. This ensures patient safety and upholds professional standards. Choice B is incorrect because confronting the colleague directly may not be appropriate or effective in addressing the issue, and the colleague may need more structured assistance. Choice C is a principle of ethical practice but does not directly address the specific situation of dealing with an impaired colleague. Choice D is incorrect because ignoring the colleague's behavior could potentially compromise patient safety and is not in line with professional responsibility.

5. After taking glipizide (Glucotrol) for 9 months, a male client experiences secondary failure. What would the nurse expect the physician to do?

• A. Initiate insulin therapy.
• B. Switch the client to a different oral antidiabetic agent.
• C. Prescribe an additional oral antidiabetic agent.
• D. Restrict carbohydrate intake to less than 30% of the total caloric intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client experiences secondary failure to an oral antidiabetic agent like glipizide, the next step is often to initiate insulin therapy. This is because secondary failure indicates that the current oral antidiabetic medication is no longer effective in managing blood glucose levels, and insulin therapy may be required to adequately control blood sugar. Switching to a different oral antidiabetic agent may not be effective if there is already resistance to the current agent. Adding another oral antidiabetic agent may not address the underlying issue of secondary failure. Restricting carbohydrate intake is important for diabetes management but is not the primary intervention indicated in this scenario of secondary failure to glipizide.

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