Nursing Elites

1. The client with DM who is taking insulin develops a fever and becomes confused. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Check the client's blood glucose level.
• B. Administer a fever-reducing medication.
• C. Give the client fluids to drink.
• D. Notify the health care provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with diabetes mellitus (DM) taking insulin, the development of fever and confusion may indicate hyperglycemia or diabetic ketoacidosis. Checking the blood glucose level is the priority action in this situation. This will help determine if the symptoms are related to high blood sugar levels, guiding further interventions. Administering a fever-reducing medication (choice B) addresses only the symptom of fever and does not address the underlying cause. Providing fluids to drink (choice C) is important but should come after addressing the potential hyperglycemia or diabetic ketoacidosis. Notifying the health care provider (choice D) can be important, but immediate action to evaluate and manage the client's condition should precede contacting the provider.

2. A client with type 1 DM is taught to take NPH and regular insulin every morning. The nurse should provide which instructions to the client?

• A. Take the NPH insulin first, then the regular insulin.
• B. Take the regular insulin first, then the NPH insulin.
• C. It does not matter which insulin is drawn up first.
• D. Contact the healthcare provider if the order for insulin is unclear.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to take the regular insulin first, then the NPH insulin. Regular insulin should be drawn up before NPH insulin to prevent contamination of the regular insulin vial with the longer-acting insulin. Choice A is incorrect as it suggests taking the NPH insulin first, which is not the recommended practice. Choice C is incorrect because the order of drawing up insulin does matter to prevent contamination. Choice D is not the most appropriate action in this scenario, as the nurse should provide clear instructions to the client based on best practices.

3. Jemma, who weighs 210 lb (95 kg) and has been diagnosed with hyperglycemia tells the nurse that her husband sleeps in another room because her snoring keeps him awake. The nurse notices that she has large hands and a hoarse voice. Which of the following would the nurse suspect as a possible cause of the client's hyperglycemia?

• A. Acromegaly
• B. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
• C. Hypothyroidism
• D. Deficient growth hormone

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Acromegaly. Jemma's symptoms of large hands, hoarse voice, and snoring are indicative of acromegaly, a disorder caused by excessive growth hormone production. Acromegaly can lead to insulin resistance, which can result in hyperglycemia. Choice B, Type 1 diabetes mellitus, is unlikely in this case as the symptoms and presentation are more suggestive of acromegaly. Choice C, Hypothyroidism, typically presents with different symptoms such as weight gain, fatigue, and cold intolerance, not consistent with Jemma's symptoms. Choice D, Deficient growth hormone, would not lead to the signs and symptoms observed in Jemma, as her condition is characterized by excessive growth hormone production.

4. Following a unilateral adrenalectomy, Nurse Betty would assess for hyperkalemia indicated by which of the following signs?

• A. Muscle weakness
• B. Tremors
• C. Diaphoresis
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Muscle weakness is a classic manifestation of hyperkalemia, an elevated level of potassium in the blood. After an adrenalectomy, where one adrenal gland is removed, there may be a risk of hyperkalemia due to altered hormone regulation. Tremors (Choice B) are not typically associated with hyperkalemia but may be seen in conditions like hypocalcemia. Diaphoresis (Choice C) and constipation (Choice D) are not specific indicators of hyperkalemia. Diaphoresis is excessive sweating and constipation is a common gastrointestinal issue, neither directly related to potassium imbalances.

5. In a 29-year-old female client who is being successfully treated for Cushing's syndrome, nurse Lyzette would expect a decline in:

• A. Serum glucose level.
• B. Hair loss.
• C. Bone mineralization.
• D. Menstrual flow.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum glucose level. In Cushing's syndrome, there is excess cortisol production which can lead to hyperglycemia. Successful treatment of Cushing's syndrome aims to normalize cortisol levels, resulting in a decline in serum glucose levels. Choice B, hair loss, is not specifically associated with Cushing's syndrome or its treatment. Choice C, bone mineralization, is often compromised in Cushing's syndrome due to the effects of excess cortisol on bones; however, successful treatment would aim to improve bone health rather than decline it. Choice D, menstrual flow, is not directly linked to Cushing's syndrome or its treatment, so a decline in menstrual flow would not be an expected outcome of successful treatment.

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