Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following clinical manifestations should the nurse expect?

• A. Hypernatremia
• B. Hypotension
• C. Decreased urine output
• D. Polyuria

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Decreased urine output.' Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is characterized by excessive release of antidiuretic hormone, leading to water retention and decreased urine output. Therefore, the nurse should expect the client to have decreased urine output. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypernatremia (Choice A) is not typically associated with SIADH as it usually leads to dilutional hyponatremia. Hypotension (Choice B) is not a common clinical manifestation of SIADH. Polyuria (Choice D) is the opposite of what is expected in a client with SIADH, who typically presents with decreased urine output.

2. A nurse manager has detected a potential problem with staffing and has asked staff members for their thoughts on the matter. Which of the following best describes the informational activity this manager is engaging in?

• A. Spokesperson
• B. Reporting
• C. Monitoring
• D. Job analysis and redesign

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Monitoring.' Monitoring involves regularly checking and observing the status of a unit or situation. In this scenario, the nurse manager is actively seeking feedback from staff members to assess and keep track of the staffing situation. Choice A, 'Spokesperson,' refers to a role where someone represents or speaks on behalf of a group or organization, which is not the primary activity in this case. Choice B, 'Reporting,' typically involves presenting information or data about a specific topic or issue but does not capture the ongoing observation and assessment aspect seen in monitoring. Choice D, 'Job analysis and redesign,' involves assessing and restructuring job roles, responsibilities, and tasks, which is not directly related to the action of monitoring staffing levels.

3. A 67-year-old male client has been complaining of sleeping more, increased urination, anorexia, weakness, irritability, depression, and bone pain that interferes with his ability to go outdoors. Based on these assessment findings, Nurse Richard would suspect which of the following disorders?

• A. Diabetes mellitus
• B. Diabetes insipidus
• C. Hypoparathyroidism
• D. Hyperparathyroidism

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The symptoms described in the scenario, such as bone pain, increased urination, anorexia, and weakness, are indicative of hyperparathyroidism. In hyperparathyroidism, there is an excess of parathyroid hormone leading to increased calcium levels, which can result in bone pain and various systemic effects. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not align with the symptoms presented by the client. Diabetes mellitus primarily presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and hyperglycemia. Diabetes insipidus manifests as polyuria and polydipsia with dilute urine. Hypoparathyroidism usually presents with hypocalcemia, causing symptoms like muscle cramps, tingling sensations, and seizures.

4. A female client with a history of pheochromocytoma is admitted to the hospital in an acute hypertensive crisis. To reverse the hypertensive crisis caused by pheochromocytoma, nurse Lyka expects to administer:

• A. Phentolamine (Regitine)
• B. Methyldopa (Aldomet)
• C. Mannitol (Osmitrol)
• D. Felodipine (Plendil)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a hypertensive crisis due to pheochromocytoma, the appropriate medication to administer is Phentolamine (Regitine), an alpha-adrenergic blocker. Phentolamine acts quickly to block the effects of excess catecholamines that are released in pheochromocytoma, helping to rapidly lower blood pressure. Methyldopa (Aldomet) is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used for chronic hypertension, not for acute crises like pheochromocytoma. Mannitol (Osmitrol) is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure and treat cerebral edema, not indicated for hypertensive crises. Felodipine (Plendil) is a calcium channel blocker used for chronic management of hypertension, not for acute hypertensive crises like those seen in pheochromocytoma.

5. Capillary glucose monitoring is being performed every 4 hours for a female client diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis. Insulin is administered using a scale of regular insulin according to glucose results. At 2 p.m., the client has a capillary glucose level of 250 mg/dl for which she receives 8 U of regular insulin. Nurse Vince should expect the dose's:

• A. Onset to be at 2 p.m. and its peak to be at 3 p.m.
• B. Onset to be at 2:15 p.m. and its peak to be at 3 p.m.
• C. Onset to be at 2:30 p.m. and its peak to be at 4 p.m.
• D. Onset to be at 4 p.m. and its peak to be at 6 p.m.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Regular insulin typically has an onset of action within 30 minutes and peaks 2-4 hours after administration. Given that the insulin was administered at 2 p.m., the onset of action can be expected around 2:30 p.m., and the peak effect would occur between 4-6 p.m. Choice A is incorrect as the onset and peak are too close together for regular insulin. Choice B is incorrect because the onset time is too soon after administration. Choice D is incorrect as the onset time is too delayed for regular insulin.

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