HESI RN
HESI RN Nursing Leadership and Management Exam 6
1. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus presents to the emergency department with symptoms of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer intravenous insulin
- B. Start an intravenous line and infuse normal saline
- C. Monitor serum potassium levels
- D. Obtain an arterial blood gas (ABG)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct first intervention in a client with DKA is to start an intravenous line and infuse normal saline for fluid resuscitation. This is crucial to restore intravascular volume and improve perfusion, addressing the dehydration and electrolyte imbalances commonly seen in DKA. Administering insulin without addressing the dehydration can lead to further complications. Monitoring serum potassium levels is important but is not the first priority; potassium levels can shift with fluid resuscitation. Obtaining an arterial blood gas (ABG) is helpful in assessing acid-base status but is not the initial priority compared to fluid resuscitation.
2. Skillful communication is one behavior of an effective leader. Which of the following describes an effective method of communication?
- A. A unit manager meets with a new nurse to discuss what is going well and what improvements the new nurse can make.
- B. A unit manager meets with a new nurse to explain departmental policy.
- C. A unit manager meets with staff after several safety events to unveil new policies designed to prevent further safety events.
- D. A unit manager describes safety events that have occurred on the unit to another nurse manager and discusses ideas for policy improvement with the other manager.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Meeting with a new nurse to discuss progress and areas for improvement is an effective communication method.
3. After taking glipizide (Glucotrol) for 9 months, a male client experiences secondary failure. What would the nurse expect the physician to do?
- A. Initiate insulin therapy.
- B. Switch the client to a different oral antidiabetic agent.
- C. Prescribe an additional oral antidiabetic agent.
- D. Restrict carbohydrate intake to less than 30% of the total caloric intake.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client experiences secondary failure to an oral antidiabetic agent like glipizide, the next step is often to initiate insulin therapy. This is because secondary failure indicates that the current oral antidiabetic medication is no longer effective in managing blood glucose levels, and insulin therapy may be required to adequately control blood sugar. Switching to a different oral antidiabetic agent may not be effective if there is already resistance to the current agent. Adding another oral antidiabetic agent may not address the underlying issue of secondary failure. Restricting carbohydrate intake is important for diabetes management but is not the primary intervention indicated in this scenario of secondary failure to glipizide.
4. What is the most common cause of hyperaldosteronism?
- A. Excessive sodium intake
- B. A pituitary adenoma
- C. Deficient potassium intake
- D. An adrenal adenoma
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An adrenal adenoma is the most common cause of primary hyperaldosteronism. Hyperaldosteronism is typically caused by an adrenal adenoma, a benign tumor in the adrenal gland that leads to excessive aldosterone production. Excessive sodium intake (Choice A) does not directly cause hyperaldosteronism. Pituitary adenoma (Choice B) is associated with conditions like Cushing's disease, not hyperaldosteronism. Deficient potassium intake (Choice C) can lead to hypokalemia but is not a common cause of hyperaldosteronism.
5. A client with hyperaldosteronism is at risk for which of the following electrolyte imbalances?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hypokalemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In hyperaldosteronism, there is an excessive secretion of aldosterone, a hormone that promotes potassium excretion in the kidneys. This leads to low potassium levels in the blood, known as hypokalemia. Therefore, the correct answer is hypokalemia (Choice C). Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is the opposite condition, where there is high potassium levels in the blood and is not typically associated with hyperaldosteronism. Hyponatremia (Choice B) is a low sodium level, which is not directly related to aldosterone function. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is an elevated calcium level and is not typically a direct result of hyperaldosteronism.
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