Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client with a history of myocardial infarction who is complaining of chest pain. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer oxygen therapy as prescribed.
• B. Administer nitroglycerin sublingually as prescribed.
• C. Obtain an electrocardiogram (ECG).
• D. Assess the client's level of consciousness.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Obtaining an electrocardiogram (ECG) is the first priority in assessing for ischemia or infarction in a client with chest pain and a history of myocardial infarction. This diagnostic test provides crucial information about the heart's electrical activity and helps in identifying any acute cardiac changes. Administering oxygen therapy and nitroglycerin can be important interventions, but obtaining an ECG takes precedence as it directly assesses the client's cardiac status. Assessing the client's level of consciousness is also essential, but in this scenario, assessing for cardiac indications through an ECG is the initial step.

2. A client with a tracheostomy is experiencing thick, tenacious secretions. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Encourage fluid intake to thin secretions.
• B. Administer a mucolytic agent.
• C. Increase humidity in the client's room.
• D. Perform deep suctioning as needed.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Increasing humidity in the client's room is the initial intervention for managing thick, tenacious secretions in a client with a tracheostomy. Adequate humidity helps to hydrate secretions, making them easier to clear, thus improving airway clearance. Encouraging fluid intake (Choice A) can be beneficial but is not the first-line intervention. Administering a mucolytic agent (Choice B) may be considered if increasing humidity alone is insufficient. Performing deep suctioning (Choice D) should be reserved for when other measures like increasing humidity have been ineffective.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for a renal biopsy. Which laboratory value is most concerning?

• A. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
• B. Serum creatinine of 1.5 mg/dl
• C. Serum creatinine of 2.5 mg/dl
• D. White blood cell count of 8,000/mm3

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum creatinine level of 2.5 mg/dl is the most concerning laboratory value in a client with chronic kidney disease scheduled for a renal biopsy. An elevated serum creatinine level indicates impaired kidney function, which is critical information before performing a renal biopsy. Option A (Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L) may be concerning for hyperkalemia but is not directly related to the renal biopsy procedure. Option B (Serum creatinine of 1.5 mg/dl) is within normal limits, suggesting relatively normal kidney function. Option D (White blood cell count of 8,000/mm3) is within the normal range and not directly related to the renal biopsy procedure or CKD management.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is admitted with hyperkalemia. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer intravenous calcium gluconate.
• B. Administer intravenous insulin and glucose.
• C. Administer intravenous sodium bicarbonate.
• D. Administer a loop diuretic as prescribed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer intravenous insulin and glucose first. This intervention helps drive potassium back into the cells, lowering serum levels effectively. Administering intravenous calcium gluconate (choice A) is used to stabilize cardiac membranes in severe hyperkalemia but does not address the underlying cause. Administering intravenous sodium bicarbonate (choice C) is used in metabolic acidosis, not hyperkalemia. Administering a loop diuretic (choice D) can help eliminate potassium but is not the first-line treatment for hyperkalemia in CKD.

5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is admitted with a new onset of confusion. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Obtain a blood glucose level.
• B. Administer an anticoagulant as prescribed.
• C. Perform a neurological assessment.
• D. Administer aspirin as prescribed.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Performing a neurological assessment is the priority in this situation as it helps in evaluating the cause of the new onset of confusion in a client with atrial fibrillation. This assessment will provide crucial information about the client's neurological status, which can guide further interventions. Obtaining a blood glucose level (Choice A) is important but should not be the first step when dealing with a new onset of confusion. Administering an anticoagulant (Choice B) or aspirin (Choice D) may be necessary depending on the underlying cause, but assessing the neurological status comes first to determine the appropriate course of action.

Similar Questions