Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy. Which laboratory value should be monitored closely?

• A. Serum calcium of 8.5 mg/dL
• B. Serum sodium of 136 mEq/L
• C. Serum potassium of 3.0 mEq/L
• D. Serum chloride of 102 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L should be monitored closely in a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy to detect any electrolyte imbalances. After a thyroidectomy, there is a risk of hypokalemia due to the effects of anesthesia, stress response, and the surgical procedure itself. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial as hypokalemia can lead to cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Serum calcium, sodium, and chloride levels are important but not the primary focus following a thyroidectomy, making them incorrect choices.

2. A male client reports the onset of numbness and tingling in his fingers and around his mouth. Which lab test is important for the nurse to review before contacting the healthcare provider?

• A. Capillary glucose
• B. Urine specific gravity
• C. Serum calcium
• D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum calcium. Numbness and tingling in the fingers and around the mouth are indicative of hypocalcemia. Serum calcium levels should be reviewed as they play a crucial role in diagnosing and managing hypocalcemia. Option A, capillary glucose, is not relevant to the symptoms described. Option B, urine specific gravity, is not typically used to assess numbness and tingling. Option D, white blood cell count, is unrelated to the symptoms presented by the client.

3. An adult male with schizophrenia who has been noncompliant in taking oral antipsychotic medications refuses a prescribed IM medication. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider of the client's refusal
• B. Attempt to convince the client to take the medication
• C. Administer the medication without the client's consent
• D. Document the refusal and take no further action

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action is to notify the healthcare provider of the client's refusal. It is important for the healthcare provider to be informed so that they can decide on the next steps in the client's treatment, which may involve exploring alternative options or strategies. Attempting to convince the client to take the medication may not be effective, especially if the client is refusing. Administering the medication without the client's consent would violate the client's autonomy and rights. Simply documenting the refusal without further action may not address the client's treatment needs.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with acute pancreatitis who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which laboratory value should be monitored closely?

• A. Serum calcium
• B. Serum triglycerides
• C. Serum glucose
• D. Serum triglycerides

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Serum triglycerides should be monitored closely in a client receiving TPN as they may indicate hyperlipidemia, which is a potential complication of TPN. Monitoring serum triglycerides is essential to prevent complications such as hypertriglyceridemia. Serum calcium and glucose levels are also important to monitor in clients receiving TPN, but in this scenario, serum triglycerides take priority due to the risk of hyperlipidemia.

5. When assessing a client with left-sided heart failure, which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer oxygen therapy as prescribed.
• B. Monitor the client's urine output.
• C. Administer a loop diuretic as prescribed.
• D. Administer morphine as prescribed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen therapy is the initial intervention for a client with left-sided heart failure. This action is crucial in improving oxygen levels and reducing pulmonary congestion. Monitoring urine output is important for assessing renal function in heart failure, but it is not the priority over ensuring adequate oxygenation. Administering loop diuretics helps manage fluid overload but should come after addressing oxygen needs. Morphine may be indicated for pain or anxiety in some cases, but it is not the primary intervention for left-sided heart failure.

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