HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam
1. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is scheduled to receive a dose of methotrexate. Which laboratory result is most important for the nurse to review before administering the medication?
- A. White blood cell count
- B. Liver function tests
- C. Kidney function tests
- D. Complete blood count
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Liver function tests. Before administering methotrexate, it is crucial to review liver function tests due to the medication's potential hepatotoxic effects. Methotrexate can cause liver damage, so monitoring liver function is essential to prevent any serious complications. While white blood cell count, kidney function tests, and complete blood count are important parameters to monitor in certain situations, they are not the most critical before administering methotrexate.
2. A nurse plans to call the healthcare provider to report an 0600 serum potassium level of 2 mEq/L or mmol/L (SI), but the charge nurse tells the nurse that the healthcare provider does not like to receive early morning calls and will make rounds later in the morning. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Contact the healthcare provider immediately to report the laboratory value regardless of the advice.
- B. Document the finding and report it when the healthcare provider makes rounds.
- C. Notify the charge nurse that you are following the chain of command.
- D. Administer a potassium supplement and notify the provider later.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A nurse should contact the healthcare provider immediately to report a critically low potassium level of 2 mEq/L. Potassium levels below the normal range can lead to life-threatening complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Prompt notification is essential to ensure timely intervention and prevent harm to the patient. Option B is incorrect as delaying reporting such a critical value can jeopardize patient safety. Option C is not the priority in this situation; the focus should be on patient care. Option D is dangerous and inappropriate as administering a potassium supplement without healthcare provider's guidance can be harmful, especially with a critically low level.
3. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which finding indicates the need for immediate intervention?
- A. Use of accessory muscles
- B. Oxygen saturation of 94%
- C. Carbon dioxide level of 45 mmHg
- D. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A carbon dioxide level of 45 mmHg is concerning in a client with COPD receiving supplemental oxygen, as it may indicate carbon dioxide retention and requires immediate intervention. Options A, B, and D are not the priority findings in this scenario. While the use of accessory muscles, an oxygen saturation of 94%, and a respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute are important to monitor in a client with COPD, they do not indicate an immediate need for intervention like an elevated carbon dioxide level does.
4. In a client with liver cirrhosis admitted with ascites and jaundice, which laboratory value is most concerning to the nurse?
- A. Serum albumin of 3.0 g/dl
- B. Bilirubin of 3.0 mg/dl
- C. Ammonia level of 80 mcg/dl
- D. Prothrombin time of 18 seconds
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An elevated ammonia level of 80 mcg/dl is most concerning in a client with liver cirrhosis because it may indicate hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication. Serum albumin, though low, is expected in cirrhosis and contributes to ascites. Bilirubin elevation is common in liver disease but may not be the most concerning in this case. Prothrombin time is typically prolonged in liver disease but may not be as acute as an elevated ammonia level suggesting hepatic encephalopathy.
5. The nurse is assessing a 1-year-old child with bronchiolitis caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Wheezing heard on expiration
- B. Oxygen saturation of 90%
- C. Respiratory rate of 40 breaths per minute
- D. Nasal flaring with sternal retractions
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Nasal flaring with sternal retractions indicates severe respiratory distress in a 1-year-old with bronchiolitis, requiring immediate intervention. Nasal flaring and sternal retractions are signs of increased work of breathing and decreased air movement, indicating the child is struggling to breathe. Wheezing on expiration (Choice A) is common in bronchiolitis but may not require immediate intervention. An oxygen saturation of 90% (Choice B) is low but may not be the most critical finding in this case. A respiratory rate of 40 breaths per minute (Choice C) is elevated but alone may not indicate the need for immediate intervention as much as nasal flaring and sternal retractions.
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